Ham Radio 2000 #2

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P74 'SUBELEMENT E1 - COMMISSION'S RULES [8 exam questions - 8 groups] N8 'E1A Operating Standards: Additional Privileges for Extra class amateurs; 'Message forwarding; Emission standards Frequency sharing between ITU 'Regions; FCC modification of station license; 30-meter band sharing; 'Stations aboard ships or aircraft; Telemetry; Telecommand of an amateur 'station; Authorized telecommand transmissions; Definitions: Image; Pulse; 'Test TE1A01 '[97.301b] RB QWhat exclusive frequency privileges in the 80-meter band are authorized Qto Extra class control operators? A3525-3775 kHz B3500-3525 kHz C3700-3750 kHz D3500-3550 kHz TE1A02 '[97.301b] RC QWhat exclusive frequency privileges in the 75-meter band are authorized Qto Extra class control operators? A3775-3800 kHz B3800-3850 kHz C3750-3775 kHz D3800-3825 kHz TE1A03 '[97.301b] RA QWhat exclusive frequency privileges in the 40-meter band are authorized Qto Extra class control operators? A7000-7025 kHz B7000-7050 kHz C7025-7050 kHz D7100-7150 kHz TE1A04 '[97.301b] RD QWhat exclusive frequency privileges in the 20-meter band are authorized Qto Extra class control operators? A14.100-14.175 MHz and 14.150-14.175 MHz B14.000-14.125 MHz and 14.250-14.300 MHz C14.025-14.050 MHz and 14.100-14.150 MHz D14.000-14.025 MHz and 14.150-14.175 MHz TE1A05 '[97.301b] RC QWhat exclusive frequency privileges in the 15-meter band are authorized Qto Extra class control operators? A21.000-21.200 MHz and 21.250-21.270 MHz B21.050-21.100 MHz and 21.150-21.175 MHz C21.000-21.025 MHz and 21.200-21.225 MHz D21.000-21.025 MHz and 21.250-21.275 MHz TE1A06 '[97.219b&d] RB QIf a packet bulletin board station in a message forwarding system Qinadvertently forwards a message that is in violation of FCC rules, who Qis accountable for the rules violation? AThe control operator of the packet bulletin board station BThe control operator of the originating station and conditionally the Bfirst forwarding station CThe control operators of all the stations in the system DThe control operators of all the stations in the system not Dauthenticating the source from which they accept communications TE1A07 '[97.219c] RA QIf your packet bulletin board station inadvertently forwards a Qcommunication that violates FCC rules, what is the first action you Qshould take? ADiscontinue forwarding the communication as soon as you become aware Aof it BNotify the originating station that the communication does not comply Bwith FCC rules CNotify the nearest FCC Field Engineer's office DDiscontinue forwarding all messages TE1A08 '[97.307c] RD QWhat must an amateur licensee do if a spurious emission from his or her Qstation causes harmful interference to the reception of another radio Qstation? APay a fine each time it happens BSubmit a written explanation to the FCC CForfeit the station license if it happens more than once DEliminate or reduce the interference TE1A09 '[97.111a2,3,4] RA QWhen may an amateur station exchange messages with an FCC-regulated Qnon-amateur station? AOnly during emergencies, RACES operations, Armed Forces Day ACommunications Tests or when the FCC authorizes such communications BUnder no circumstances COnly during emergencies DOnly during Public Service events, REACT operations, Field Day or Dwhen the FCC authorizes such communications TE1A10 '[97.303e] RB QWhat type of amateur stations are permitted to operate in the 219-220-MHz Qband? AAny type BOnly those participating in point-to-point fixed digital message Bforwarding systems COnly those licensed to Extra class operators DOnly those using an effective radiated power of 25 watts PEP or less Dfor digital communications TE1A11 '[97.27] RD QWhy might the FCC modify an amateur station license? ATo relieve crowding in certain bands BTo better prepare for a time of national emergency CTo enforce a radio quiet zone within one mile of an airport DTo promote the public interest, convenience and necessity TE1A12 '[97.11a] RA QIf an amateur station is installed on board a ship or aircraft and is Qseparate from the main radio installation, what condition must be met Qbefore the station is operated? AIts operation must be approved by the master of the ship or the pilot Ain command of the aircraft BIts antenna must be separate from the main ship or aircraft antennas, Btransmitting only when the main radios are not in use CIt must have a power supply that is completely independent of the Cmain ship or aircraft power supply DIts operator must have an FCC Marine or Aircraft endorsement on his Dor her amateur license TE1A13 '[97.11] RB QWhat type of FCC-issued license or permit is required to transmit amateur Qcommunications from a vessel registered in the US while in international Qwaters? AAny amateur license with an FCC Marine or Aircraft endorsement BAny amateur license or reciprocal permit for alien amateur licensee CAny General class or higher license DAn Extra class license TE1A14 '[97.211b] RD QWhen may a station use special codes intended to obscure the meaning of Qmessages? ANever under any circumstances BWhen a Special Temporary Authority has been obtained from the FCC CWhen an Extra class operator is controlling the station DWhen sending telecommand messages to a station in space operation 'E1B Station Restrictions: Restrictions on station locations; Restricted 'operation; Teacher as control operator; Station antenna structures TE1B01 '[97.13a] RA QWhich of the following factors might restrict the physical location of an Qamateur operator's station equipment or antenna structure? AThe land may have environmental importance; or it is significant in AAmerican history, architecture or culture BThe location's political or societal importance CThe location's geographical or horticultural importance DThe location's international importance, requiring consultation with Done or more foreign governments before installation TE1B02 '[97.13b] RA QOutside of what distance from an FCC monitoring facility may an amateur Qstation be located without concern for protecting the facility from Qharmful interference? A1 mile B3 miles C10 miles D30 miles TE1B03 '[97.13a] RC QWhat must be done before an amateur station is placed within an Qofficially designated wilderness area or wildlife preserve, or an area Qlisted in the National Register of Historical Places? AA proposal must be submitted to the National Park Service BA letter of intent must be filed with the National Audubon Society CAn Environmental Assessment must be submitted to the FCC DA form FSD-15 must be submitted to the Department of the Interior TE1B04 '[97.121a] RA QIf an amateur station interferes with the reception of broadcast stations Qon a well-engineered receiver, during what hours shall the amateur Qstation NOT be operated on the interfering frequencies? ADaily from 8 PM to 10:30 PM local time and additionally from 10:30 AM Ato 1 PM on Sunday BDaily from 6 PM to 12 AM local time and additionally from 8 AM to 5 BPM on Sunday CDaily for any continuous span of at least 2.5 hours and for at least C5 continuous hours on Sunday DDaily for any continuous span of at least 6 hours and for at least 9 Dcontinuous hours on Sunday TE1B05 '[97.121a] RD QIf an amateur station causes interference to the reception of a domestic Qbroadcast station with a receiver of good engineering design, on what Qfrequencies may the operation of the amateur station be restricted? AOn the frequency used by the domestic broadcast station BOn all frequencies below 30 MHz COn all frequencies above 30 MHz DOn the interfering amateur frequency or frequencies TE1B06 '[97.113c] RC QWhen may a paid professional teacher be the control operator of an Qamateur station used in the teacher's classroom? AOnly when the teacher is not paid during periods of time when an Aamateur station is used BOnly when the classroom is in a correctional institution COnly when the station is used by that teacher as a part of classroom Cinstruction at an educational institution DOnly when the station is restricted to making contacts with similar Dstations at other educational institutions TE1B07 '[97.113c] RB QWho may accept compensation when acting as a control operator in a Qclassroom? AAny licensed amateur BOnly teachers at educational institutions COnly teachers at correctional institutions DOnly students at educational or correctional institutions TE1B08 '[97.15e] RD QWhat limits must state and local authorities observe when legislating Qheight and dimension restrictions for amateur antenna structures? AFAA regulations specify a minimum height for amateur antenna Astructures located near airports BFCC regulations specify a 200 foot minimum height for amateur antenna Bstructures CState and local restrictions of amateur antenna structures are not Callowed DPRB-1 specifies that authorities must reasonably accommodate the Dinstallation of amateur antenna structures TE1B09 '[97.15] RB QIf an amateur antenna structure is located in a valley or canyon, what Qheight restrictions apply? AThe structure must not extend more that 200 feet above average height Aof the terrain BThe structure must be no higher than 200 feet above ground level at Bits site CThere are no height restrictions since the structure would not be a Chazard to aircraft in a valley or canyon DThe structure must not extend more that 200 feet above the top of the Dvalley or canyon TE1B10 '[97.15] RB QOther than the general limitations placed on amateur antenna structures, Qwhat special restrictions are placed on amateur repeater, beacon or Qauxiliary station antenna structures? AApproval from the FCC is required if the gain of the antenna is Agreater than 6 dBi BNone CApproval from local authorities must be obtained prior to antenna Cinstallation DSuch structures are limited to a height no greater than 20 feet above Daverage terrain TE1B11 '[97.15b&c] RD QWhat kind of approval is required before erecting an amateur antenna Qlocated near an airport as defined in the FCC rules? AThe FAA and FCC both must approve any type of antenna structure Alocated near an airport BApproval must be obtained from the airport manager CApproval must be obtained from the local zoning authorities DThe FCC must approve an antenna structure that is higher than 20 feet Dabove any natural or existing man made structure TE1B12 '[97.15] RC QWhat special restrictions does the FCC impose on amateur antennas mounted Qon motor vehicles? ASuch antennas may not extend more than 15 feet above the roof of the Avehicle BComplex antennas, such as a yagi or quad beam, may not be installed Bon motor vehicles CNone DSuch antennas must comply with the recommendations of the vehicle Dmanufacturer 'E1C Reciprocal Operating: Definition of reciprocal operating permit; 'Purpose of reciprocal agreement rules; Alien control operator privileges; 'Identification; Application for reciprocal permit; Reciprocal permit 'license term TE1C01 '[97.5c1, 97.17d1] RA QWhat is an FCC reciprocal permit for alien amateur licensee? AAn FCC authorization to a holder of an amateur license issued by Acertain foreign governments to operate an amateur station in the US BAn FCC permit to allow a US licensed amateur to operate in a foreign Bnation, except Canada CAn FCC permit allowing a foreign licensed amateur to handle Cthird-party traffic between the US and the amateur's own nation DAn FCC agreement with another country allowing the passing of Dthird-party traffic between amateurs of the two nations TE1C02 '[97.17] RB QWho is eligible for an FCC reciprocal permit for alien amateur licensee? AAnyone holding a valid amateur license issued by a foreign government BAny non-US citizen holding an amateur license issued by a foreign Bgovernment with which the US has a reciprocal operating agreement CAnyone holding a valid amateur license issued by a foreign government Cwith which the US has a reciprocal operating agreement DAny non-US citizen holding a valid amateur or shortwave listener's Dlicense issued by a foreign government TE1C03 '[97.107] RC QWhat operator frequency privileges are authorized by an FCC reciprocal Qpermit for alien amateur licensee? AThose authorized to a holder of the equivalent US amateur license, Aunless the FCC specifies otherwise by endorsement on the permit BThose that the holder of the permit would have in their own country CThose authorized to US amateurs that the holder of the permit would Chave in their own country, unless the FCC specifies otherwise DOnly those frequencies approved by the International Amateur Radio DUnion, unless the FCC specifies otherwise TE1C04 '[97.119f] RD QWhat additional station identification, in addition to his or her own Qcall sign, does an alien operator supply when operating in the US under Qan FCC reciprocal permit for alien amateur licensee? ANo additional identification is required BThe grid-square locator closest to his or her present location is Bincluded before the call CThe serial number of the permit and the call-letter district number Cof the station location is included before the call DThe letter-numeral indicating the station location in the US is Dincluded before their own call and closest city and state TE1C05 '[97.17d3] RA QWhen may a US citizen holding a foreign amateur license obtain an FCC QReciprocal Operating Permit? ANever; US citizens are not eligible BWhen the citizen has imported his or her equipment from the foreign Bcountry CWhen the citizen has never held a US amateur license DWhen the citizen has no current US amateur license TE1C06 '[97.17b,d] RC QWhat form would a citizen of a foreign country use to apply for a Qreciprocal permit for alien amateur licensee? AFCC Form 610 BDepartment of Immigration Form 610 CFCC Form 610-A DFCC Alien Registration Form ARF-1 TE1C07 '[97.17d] RA QWhich of the following would disqualify a foreign amateur from being Qeligible for a US reciprocal permit for alien amateur licensee? AHolding only an amateur license issued by a country but not being a Acitizen of that country BCitizenship in their own country but not US citizenship CHolding only an amateur license issued by their own country but Cholding no US amateur license DHolding an amateur license issued by their own country granting them Dfrequency privileges beyond US Extra class privileges TE1C08 '[97.5c2] RB QWhat special document is required before a Canadian citizen holding a QCanadian amateur license may operate in the US? AAll aliens, including Canadians, must obtain a reciprocal permit for Aalien amateur licensee BNo special document is required CThe citizen must have an FCC-issued validation of their Canadian Clicense DThe citizen must have an FCC-issued Certificate of US License Grant Dwithout Examination to operate for a period longer than ten days TE1C09 '[97.17] RD QWhat is the minimum age for which a reciprocal permit for alien amateur Qlicensee may be issued to a foreign amateur? A16 years for Canadian citizens, 18 years for all others B18 years C21 years DThere is no minimum age TE1C10 '[97.25b] RC QHow long from the date of issue is a reciprocal permit valid? AThirty days BNinety days COne year DTen years TE1C11 '[97.17d4] RB QWhat happens if a person holding a reciprocal permit for alien amateur Qlicensee qualifies for, and is granted a US amateur license? AThe operator must use the US call sign when operating within their US Alicense privileges, and the foreign license call sign otherwise BThe reciprocal permit becomes void and the operator is restricted to Bthe privileges of the US license CThe operator may use either his/her US or foreign call sign when Coperating within the US license privileges DThe US amateur license will be voided as soon as the FCC audits their Damateur license database 'E1D Radio Amateur Civil Emergency Service (RACES): Definition; Purpose; 'Station registration; Station license required; Application for new RACES 'license; Control operator requirements; Control operator privileges; 'Frequencies available; Limitations on use of RACES frequencies; Points of 'communication for RACES operation; Permissible communications TE1D01 '[97.3a35] RB QWhat is RACES? AAn amateur network for providing emergency communications during Aathletic races BThe Radio Amateur Civil Emergency Service CThe Radio Amateur Corps for Engineering Services DAn amateur network for providing emergency communications during boat Dor aircraft races TE1D02 '[97.3a35] RA QWhat is the purpose of RACES? ATo provide civil-defense communications during emergencies BTo provide emergency communications for boat or aircraft races CTo provide routine and emergency communications for athletic races DTo provide routine and emergency military communications TE1D03 '[97.407a] RC QWith what other organization must an amateur station be registered before QRACES registration is permitted? AThe Amateur Radio Emergency Service BThe US Department of Defense CA civil defense organization DThe FCC Field Operations Bureau TE1D04 '[97.407a] RC QWhich amateur stations may be operated in RACES? AOnly Extra class amateur stations BAny licensed amateur station (except a station licensed to a Novice) CAny licensed amateur station certified by the responsible civil Cdefense organization DAny licensed amateur station (except a station licensed to a Novice) Dcertified by the responsible civil defense organization TE1D05 '[97.21a1] RD QApplication for modification of a RACES license must be made on what FCC Qform, and sent to what FCC office? AForm 610, sent to Washington, DC BForm 610, sent to Gettysburg, PA CForm 610-A, sent to Washington, DC DForm 610-B, sent to Gettysburg, PA TE1D06 '[97.407a] RD QWho may be the control operator of a RACES station? AAnyone who holds an FCC-issued amateur license other than Novice BOnly an Extra class licensee CAnyone who holds an FCC-issued amateur license other than Novice and Cis certified by a civil defense organization DAnyone who holds an FCC-issued amateur license and is certified by a Dcivil defense organization TE1D07 '[97.407b] RA QWhat additional operator privileges are granted to an Extra class Qoperator registered with RACES? ANone BCW operations on 5167.5 kHz CUnattended HF packet-radio station operations D237-MHz civil defense band operations TE1D08 '[97.407b] RD QWhat frequencies are normally available for RACES operation? AOnly those frequencies authorized to civil defense organizations BOnly those frequencies authorized to emergency military Bcommunications COnly the top 25 kHz of each amateur frequency band DAll frequencies available to the amateur service TE1D09 '[97.407b] RA QWhat type of emergency can cause limits to be placed on the frequencies Qavailable for RACES operation? AAn emergency in which the President invokes the War Emergency Powers Aunder the provisions of the Communications Act of 1934 BAn emergency in only one state in the US would limit RACES operations Bto a single HF frequency band CAn emergency confined to a 25-mile area would limit RACES operations Cto a single VHF band DAn emergency involving no immediate danger of loss of life TE1D10 '[97.407c,d] RB QWith what stations may amateur RACES stations communicate? AAny RACES stations and any amateur stations except stations licensed Ato Novices BAny RACES stations and certain other stations authorized by the Bresponsible civil defense official CAny amateur station or a station in the Disaster Communications CService DAny amateur station and any military emergency station TE1D11 '[97.407e] RC QWhat are permissible communications in RACES? AAny type of communications when there is no emergency BAny Amateur Radio Emergency Service communications CNational defense or immediate safety of people and property and Ccommunications authorized by the area civil defense organization DNational defense and security or immediate safety of people and Dproperty communications authorized by the President 'E1E Amateur Satellite Service (AMSAT): Definition; Purpose; Station 'license required (space station); Frequencies available; Telecommand 'operation: Definition; Eligibility; Telecommand station (definition); 'Space Telecommand station; Special provisions; Telemetry: Definition; 'Special provisions; Space station: Definition; Eligibility; Special 'provisions; Authorized frequencies (space station); Notification 'requirements; Earth operation: Definition; Eligibility {97.209(a)}; 'Authorized frequencies (Earth station) TE1E01 '[97.3a3] RC QWhat is the Amateur Satellite Service? AA radio navigation service using stations on earth satellites for the Asame purposes as those of the amateur service BA radio communication service using stations on earth satellites for Bweather information gathering CA radio communication service using stations on earth satellites for Cthe same purpose as those of the amateur service DA radio location service using stations on earth satellites for Damateur radar experimentation TE1E02 '[97.207] RA QWhich HF amateur bands have frequencies available for space operation? AOnly 40 m, 20 m, 17 m, 15 m, 12 m and 10 m BOnly 40 m, 30 m, 20 m, 15 m and 10 m COnly 40 m, 30 m, 20 m, 15 m, 12 m and 10 m DAll HF bands, but only in the Extra class segments TE1E03 '[97.207c1] RA QWhich amateur bands are available for space operation? AOnly 17 m, 15 m, 12 m, 10 m, 6 mm, 4 mm, 2 mm and 1 mm and certain Afrequency segments. BOnly 17 m, 15 m, 12 m and 10 m COnly 17 m, 15 m, 2 m, 1.25 m, 6 mm, 4 mm, 2 mm and 1 mm DAll amateur bands from 17 m and above TE1E04 '[97.3a42] RB QWhat type of amateur station operation transmits communications used to Qinitiate, modify or terminate the functions of a space station? ASpace operation BTelecommand operation CEarth operation DControl operation TE1E05 '[97.211a] RD QWhich amateur stations are eligible to be telecommand stations? AAny except those of Novice licensees BOnly those of Extra class licensees COnly a station operated by the space station licensee DAny station designated by the space station licensee TE1E06 '[97.207f] RC QWhat term does the FCC use for space-to-earth transmissions used to Qcommunicate the results of measurements made by a space station? AData transmission BFrame check sequence CTelemetry DTelecommand TE1E07 '[97.3a38] RB QWhat is the term used to describe the operation of an amateur station Qthat is more than 50 km above the earth's surface? AEME station operation BSpace station operation CDownlink station operation DIonospheric station operation TE1E08 '[97.207a] RD QWhich amateur stations are eligible for space operation? AAny except those of Novice licensees BOnly those of General, Advanced or Extra class licensees COnly those of Extra class licensees DAny amateur station TE1E09 '[97.207g] RD QBefore initiating space station transmissions, by when must the Qlicensee of the station give the FCC prior written pre-space Qnotification? ABefore 3 months and before 72 hours BBefore 6 months and before 3 months CBefore 12 months and before 3 months DBefore 27 months and before 5 months TE1E10 '[97.207h] RC QAfter space station transmissions are initiated, by when must the Qlicensee of the station give the FCC written in-space notification? AWithin 24 hours BWithin 72 hours CWithin 7 days DWithin 30 days TE1E11 '[97.207i] RD QAfter space station transmissions are terminated, by when must the Qlicensee of the station normally give the FCC written post-space Qnotification? ANo later than 48 hours BNo later than 72 hours CNo later than 7 days DNo later than 3 months TE1E12 '[97.3a15] RB QWhat term describes an amateur station located on or within 50 km of Qearth's surface intended for communications with space stations? ATelecommand station BEarth station CTelemetry station DAuxiliary station 'E1F Volunteer Examiner Coordinators (VECs): Definition; VEC 'qualifications; VEC agreement; Scheduling examinations; Coordinating 'VEs; Conflict of interest; Reimbursement for expenses {97.527}; 'Accrediting VEs; Question pools TE1F01 '[97.521] RC QWhat is a Volunteer Examiner Coordinator? AA person who has volunteered to administer amateur license Aexaminations BA person who has volunteered to prepare amateur license examinations CAn organization that has entered into an agreement with the FCC to Ccoordinate amateur license examinations given by Volunteer Examiners DAn organization that has entered into an agreement with the FCC to Dcoordinate the preparation of amateur license examinations TE1F02 '[97.519, .521, .523] RA QWhich of the following is NOT among the functions of a VEC? APrepare and administer amateur operator license examinations, grade Aexaminee's answers and inform examinees of their pass/fail results BCollect FCC Forms 610 documents and test results from the Badministering VEs CAssure that all desiring an amateur operator license examination are Cregistered without regard to race, sex, religion or national origin DCooperate in maintaining a pool of questions for each written amateur Dexamination element TE1F03 '[97.521] RB QWhich of the following is NOT among the qualifying requirements to be a QVEC? ABe an organization that exists for the purpose of furthering the Aamateur service BBe engaged in the manufacture and/or sale of amateur station Bequipment or amateur license preparation materials CAgree to coordinate examinations for all classes of amateur operator Clicenses DAgree to administer amateur operator license examinations in Daccordance with FCC Rules throughout at least one call-letter district TE1F06 '[97.519a] RB QWhat organization coordinates the preparing and administration of amateur Qlicense examinations? AThe FCC BA VEC CA group of three or more volunteers DA local radio club TE1F08 '[97.527a] RA QWho may reimburse VEs and VECs for out-of-pocket expenses incurred in Qpreparing, processing or administering amateur license examinations? AThe examinees BThe FCC CThe National Conference of Volunteer Examiner Coordinators DThe US Department of the Treasury TE1F09 '[97.525a4] RA QUnder what circumstances may a VEC refuse to accredit a person as a QVolunteer Examiner? AIf the VEC determines that questions of the person's integrity or Ahonesty could compromise amateur license examinations BIf the VEC determines that the person is a Volunteer Examiner for Banother VEC CIf the prospective VE is not a member of a club actively engaged in Cthe preparation and administration of amateur license examinations DIf the prospective VE is a citizen of a foreign country TE1F11 '[97.523] RC QWhere are the questions listed that must be used in all written US Qamateur license examinations? AIn the instructions each VEC gives to their VEs BIn an FCC-maintained question pool CIn the VEC-maintained question pool DIn the appropriate FCC Report and Order 'E1G Volunteer Examiners (VEs): Definition; Requirements; Accreditation; 'Reimbursement for expenses; VE conduct; Preparing an examination TE1G01 '[97.525] RB QWhat is an accredited VE? AAn amateur operator who is approved by three or more fellow VEs to Aadminister amateur license examinations BAn amateur operator who is approved by a VEC to administer amateur Boperator license examinations CAn amateur operator who administers amateur license examinations for Ca fee DAn amateur operator who is approved by an FCC staff member to Dadminister amateur license examinations TE1G02 '[97.509b1, 97.525] RD QWhat is the VE accreditation process? AGeneral and higher class licensees are automatically allowed to Aconduct amateur license examinations once their license is granted BThe FCC tests volunteers who wish to conduct amateur license Bexaminations CA prospective VE requests permission from three or more already Caccredited VEs to administer amateur license examinations DEach VEC ensures its Volunteer Examiner applicants meet FCC Drequirements to serve as VEs TE1G04 '[97.509b4] RC QWhich persons seeking to be VEs cannot be accredited? APersons holding less than an Advanced class license BPersons less than 21 years of age CPersons who have ever had their amateur licenses suspended or revoked DPersons who are employees of the federal government TE1G08 '[97.527a] RA QFor what type of services may a VE be reimbursed for out-of-pocket Qexpenses? APreparing, processing or administering amateur license Aexaminations BTeaching and administering amateur license study courses CNone; a VE cannot be reimbursed for out-of-pocket expenses DPurchasing and distributing amateur license preparation materials TE1G09 '[97.509e, 97.527b] RA QHow much money beyond reimbursement for out-of-pocket expenses may a Qperson accept for serving as a VE? ANone BUp to the national minimum hourly wage times the number of hours Bspent serving as a VE CUp to the maximum fee per applicant set by the FCC each year DAs much as applicants are willing to donate TE1G10 '[97.507a, b, c] RB QWho may prepare an Element 3(A) amateur operator license examination? AA VEC that selects questions from the appropriate FCC bulletin BA General, Advanced, or Extra class VE or a qualified supplier that Bselects questions from the appropriate VEC question pool CAn Extra class VE who selects questions from the appropriate FCC Cbulletin DThe FCC, which selects questions from the appropriate VEC question Dpool TE1G11 '[97.507a, b, c] RC QWho may prepare an Element 3(B) amateur operator license examination? AAn Extra class VE who selects questions from the appropriate FCC Abulletin BA VEC that selects questions from the appropriate FCC bulletin CAn Advanced or Extra class VE or a qualified supplier that selects Cquestions from the appropriate VEC question pool DThe, FCC which selects questions from the appropriate VEC question Dpool TE1G12 '[97.507a, b, c] RD QWho may prepare an Element 4(A) or 4(B) amateur operator license Qexamination? AThe FCC, which selects questions from the appropriate VEC question Apool BA VEC that selects questions from the appropriate FCC bulletin CAn Extra class VE that selects questions from the appropriate FCC Cbulletin DAn Extra class VE or a qualified supplier who selects questions from Dthe appropriate VEC question pool TE1G13 '[97.509a] RD QWho determines where and when examinations for amateur operator licenses Qare to be administered? AThe FCC BThe National Conference of Volunteer Examiner Coordinators CThe applicants DThe administering Volunteer Examiners 'E1H Examinations: Examination elements; Definition of code and written 'elements; Preparation responsibility; Examination requirements; 'Examination credit; Examination procedure; Examination administration; 'Temporary operating authority TE1H01 '[97.505a6] RC QWhat amateur operator license examination credit must be given for a Qvalid Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE)? AOnly the written elements the CSCE indicates the examinee passed BOnly the telegraphy elements the CSCE indicates the examinee passed CEach element the CSCE indicates the examinee passed DNo credit TE1H02 '[97.509c] RA QWhere must Volunteer Examiners be while they are conducting an amateur Qlicense examination? AThey must all be present and observing the candidate(s) throughout Athe entire examination BThey must all leave the room after handing out the exams to allow the Bcandidate(s) to concentrate on the exam material CThey may be anywhere as long as least one VE is present and is Cobserving the candidate(s) throughout the entire examination DThey may be anywhere as long as they are listed as having Dparticipated in the examination TE1H03 '[97.509c] RC QWho is responsible for the proper conduct and necessary supervision Qduring an amateur operator license examination session? AThe VEC coordinating the session BThe FCC CThe administering Volunteer Examiners DThe Volunteer Examiner in charge of the session TE1H04 '[97.509c] RB QWhat should a VE do if a candidate fails to comply with the examiner's Qinstructions during an amateur operator license examination? AWarn the candidate that continued failure to comply will result in Atermination of the examination BImmediately terminate the candidate's examination CAllow the candidate to complete the examination, but invalidate the Cresults DImmediately terminate everyone's examination and close the session TE1H05 '[97.509h] RC QWhat must be done with the test papers of each element completed by the Qcandidates(s) at an amateur operator license examination? AThey must be collected and graded by the administering VEs within 10 Adays of the examination BThey must be collected and sent to the coordinating VEC for grading Bwithin 10 days of the examination CThey must be collected and graded immediately by the administering CVEs DThey must be collected and sent to the FCC for grading within 10 days Dof the examination TE1H06 '[97.509j] RA QWhat must the VEs do if an examinee for an amateur operator license does Qnot score a passing grade on all examination elements needed for an Qupgrade? AReturn the application document to the examinee and inform the Aexaminee of the grade(s) BReturn the application document to the examinee and inform the Bexaminee which questions were incorrectly answered CSimply inform the examinee of the failure(s) DInform the examinee which questions were incorrectly answered and Dshow how the questions should have been answered TE1H07 '[97.509i] RD QWhat must the VEs do if an examinee for an amateur operator license Qscores a passing grade on all examination elements needed for an upgrade? AReturn the application document to the examinee and inform the Aexaminee of the percentage of questions answered correctly BSimply inform the examinee of the upgrade CIssue the examinee the upgraded license DCertify the qualification for the new license on the examinee's Dapplication document TE1H08 '[97.509m] RA QWhat must the VEs do if one or more examinees upgrade at an amateur Qoperator license examination session? ASubmit the applications and test papers from upgrading examinees to Athe coordinating VEC within 10 days of the session BSubmit the applications and test papers from upgrading examinees to Bthe FCC within 10 days of the session CSubmit all applications and a copy of all CSCEs given at the session Cto the FCC within 30 days of the session DSubmit all applications and test papers from the session to the Dcoordinating VEC within 30 days of the session TE1H09 '[97.509b3i] RB QWhat minimum credentials must a person have to administer an examination Qfor a Novice, Technician, or Technician Plus class license? AAny class of amateur operator license the coordinating VEC designates Aas an examiner BA General, Advanced or Extra class amateur operator license and VEC Baccreditation CA General, Advanced or Extra class amateur operator license and FCC Caccreditation DA General, Advanced or Extra class amateur operator license TE1H10 '[97.509b3ii] RD QWhat minimum credentials must a person have to administer an examination Qfor a General, Advanced or Extra class operator license? AAny class of amateur operator license the coordinating VEC designates Aas an examiner BAn Extra class amateur operator license CFCC accreditation and an Extra class amateur operator license DVEC accreditation and an Extra class amateur operator license TE1H11 RA QWhat document allows an amateur who has passed an examination for, but Qhas not yet received an FCC grant of, a higher class license to operate Qusing the privileges of the new license? AA Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) issued Aby the VE Team that administered the examination BAn FCC Form 610 certified for the higher class license by the VE Team Bthat administered the examination CThe list of upgrading applicants sent to the VEC coordinating the Cexamination by the administering VE Team DThe list of upgrading applicants sent to the FCC from the VEC Dcoordinating the examination TE1H12 '[97.119e4] RB QHow must an Advanced class amateur holding a Certificate of Successful QCompletion of Examination (CSCE) for an Extra class license identify his Qor her station when using Extra class license privileges? AAn identifier code of "Extra" must be used as a prefix to the Aamateur's call sign BAn identifier code of "AE" must be used as a suffix to the amateur's Bcall sign CThe phrase "operating temporary Extra" must be added as a suffix to Cthe amateur's call sign DThe identifier code of "E" must be added as a prefix to the amateur's Dcall sign 'SUBELEMENT E2 - OPERATING PROCEDURES [4 exam questions - 4 groups] N4 'E2A Amateur Satellites: Orbital mechanics; Frequencies available for 'satellite operation; Satellite hardware; Operating through amateur 'satellites TE2A01 RC QWhat is the direction of an ascending pass for an amateur satellite? AFrom west to east BFrom east to west CFrom south to north DFrom north to south TE2A02 RA QWhat is the direction of a descending pass for an amateur satellite? AFrom north to south BFrom west to east CFrom east to west DFrom south to north TE2A03 RC QWhat is the period of an amateur satellite? AThe point of maximum height of a satellite's orbit BThe point of minimum height of a satellite's orbit CThe amount of time it takes for a satellite to complete one orbit DThe time it takes a satellite to travel from perigee to apogee TE2A04 RD QWhat are the receiving and retransmitting frequency bands used for Mode QA in amateur satellite operations? ASatellite receiving on 10 meters and retransmitting on 2 meters BSatellite receiving on 70 centimeters and retransmitting on 2 meters CSatellite receiving on 70 centimeters and retransmitting on 10 meters DSatellite receiving on 2 meters and retransmitting on 10 meters TE2A05 RB QWhat are the receiving and retransmitting frequency bands used for Mode QB in amateur satellite operations? ASatellite receiving on 10 meters and retransmitting on 2 meters BSatellite receiving on 70 centimeters and retransmitting on 2 meters CSatellite receiving on 70 centimeters and retransmitting on 10 meters DSatellite receiving on 2 meters and retransmitting on 10 meters TE2A06 RC QWhat are the receiving and retransmitting frequency bands used for Mode QJ in amateur satellite operations? ASatellite receiving on 70 centimeters and retransmitting on 2 meters BSatellite receiving on 2 meters and retransmitting on 10 meters CSatellite receiving on 2 meters and retransmitting on 70 centimeters DSatellite receiving on 70 centimeters and transmitting on 10 meters TE2A07 RD QWhat are the receiving and retransmitting frequency bands used for Mode QL in amateur satellite operations? ASatellite receiving on 70 centimeters and retransmitting on 10 meters BSatellite receiving on 10 meters and retransmitting on 70 centimeters CSatellite receiving on 70 centimeters and retransmitting on 23 Ccentimeters DSatellite receiving on 23 centimeters and retransmitting on 70 Dcentimeters TE2A08 RB QWhat is a linear transponder? AA repeater that passes only linear or CW signals BA device that receives and retransmits signals of any mode in a Bcertain passband CAn amplifier that varies its output linearly in response to input Csignals DA device which responds to satellite telecommands and is used to Dactivate a linear sequence of events TE2A09 RD QWhat is the name of the effect which causes the downlink frequency of a Qsatellite to vary by several kHz during a low-earth orbit because the Qdistance between the satellite and ground station is changing? AThe Kepler effect BThe Bernoulli effect CThe Einstein effect DThe Doppler effect TE2A10 RA QWhy does the received signal from a Phase 3 amateur satellite exhibit a Qfairly rapid pulsed fading effect? ABecause the satellite is rotating BBecause of ionospheric absorption CBecause of the satellite's low orbital altitude DBecause of the Doppler effect TE2A11 RB QWhat type of antenna can be used to minimize the effects of spin Qmodulation and Faraday rotation? AA nonpolarized antenna BA circularly polarized antenna CAn isotropic antenna DA log-periodic dipole array 'E2B Television: Fast scan television (FSTV) standards; Slow scan 'television (SSTV) standards TE2B01 RA QHow many times per second is a new frame transmitted in a fast-scan Qtelevision system? A30 B60 C90 D120 TE2B02 RC QHow many horizontal lines make up a fast-scan television frame? A30 B60 C525 D1050 TE2B03 RD QHow is the interlace scanning pattern generated in a fast-scan television Qsystem? ABy scanning the field from top to bottom BBy scanning the field from bottom to top CBy scanning from left to right in one field and right to left in Cthe next DBy scanning odd numbered lines in one field and even numbered ones in Dthe next TE2B04 RB QWhat is blanking in a video signal? ASynchronization of the horizontal and vertical sync pulses BTurning off the scanning beam while it is traveling from right to Bleft and from bottom to top CTurning off the scanning beam at the conclusion of a transmission DTransmitting a black and white test pattern TE2B05 RA QWhat is the standard video voltage level between the sync tip and the Qwhitest white at TV camera outputs and modulator inputs? A1 volt peak-to-peak B120 IEEE units C12 volts DC D5 volts RMS TE2B06 RD QWhat is the bandwidth of a vestigial sideband AM fast-scan television Qtransmission? A3 kHz B10 kHz C25 kHz D6 MHz TE2B07 RC QWhat is the standard video level, in percent PEV, for black? A0% B12.5% C70% D100% TE2B08 RB QWhat is the standard video level, in percent PEV, for white? A0% B12.5% C70% D100% TE2B09 RC QWhat is the standard video level, in percent PEV, for blanking? A0% B12.5% C75% D100% TE2B10 RA QWhich of the following is NOT a characteristic of FMTV Q(Frequency-Modulated Amateur Television) as compared to vestigial Qsideband AM television AImmunity from fading due to limiting BPoor weak-signal performance CGreater signal bandwidth DGreater complexity of receiving equipment TE2B11 RA QWhich of the following is NOT a common method of transmitting Qaccompanying audio with amateur fast-scan television? AAmplitude modulation of the video carrier BFrequency-modulated sub-carrier CA separate VHF or UHF audio link DFrequency modulation of the video carrier 'E2C Contest and DX Operating TE2C01 RA QWhat would be the ideal operating strategy for a worldwide DX contest Qduring a solar minimum instead of a solar maximum? A160-40 meters would be emphasized during the evening; 20 meters Aduring daylight hours BThere would be little to no strategic difference C80 meters would support worldwide communication during mid-day hours D10 and 15 meters should be tried one hour before sunset TE2C02 RA QWhen operating during a contest, which of these standards should you Qgenerally follow? AAlways listen before transmitting, be courteous and do not cause Aharmful interference to other communications BAlways reply to other stations calling CQ at least as many times as Byou call CQ CWhen initiating a contact, always reply with the call sign of the Cstation you are calling followed by your own call sign DAlways include your signal report, name and transmitter power output Din any exchange with another station TE2C03 RB QWhat is one of the main purposes for holding on-the-air operating Qcontests? ATo test the dollar-to-feature value of station equipment during Adifficult operating circumstances BTo enhance the communicating and operating skills of amateurs in Breadiness for an emergency CTo measure the ionospheric capacity for refracting RF signals under Cvarying conditions DTo demonstrate to the FCC that amateur station operation is possible Dduring difficult operating circumstances TE2C04 RC QWhich of the following is typical of operations during an international Qamateur DX contest? ACalling CQ is always done on an odd minute and listening is always Adone on an even minute BContacting a DX station is best accomplished when the WWV K index is Babove a reading of 8 CSome DX operators use split frequency operations (transmitting on a Cfrequency different from the receiving frequency) DDX contacts during the day are never possible because of known band Dattenuation from the sun TE2C05 RD QIf a DX station asks for your grid square locator, what should be your Qreply? AThe square of the power fed to the grid of your final amplifier and Ayour current city, state and country BThe DX station's call sign followed by your call sign and your RST Bsignal report CThe subsection of the IARU region in which you are located based upon Cdividing the entire region into a grid of squares 10 km wide DYour geographic "Maidenhead" grid location (e.g., FN31AA) based on Dyour current latitude and longitude TE2C06 RA QWhat does a "Maidenhead" grid square refer to? AA two-degree longitude by one degree latitude square, as part of a Aworld wide numbering system BA one-degree longitude by one degree latitude square, beginning at Bthe South Pole CAn antenna made of wire grid used to amplify low-angle incoming Csignals while reducing high-angle incoming signals DAn antenna consisting of a screen or grid positioned directly beneath Dthe radiating element TE2C07 RB QWhich of the following items of information are typically included in a Qcontest exchange? ABoth stations' call signs and the station antenna type BBoth stations' call signs and an RST signal report CThe originating station's call sign and transmitter's manufacturer DThe originating station's call sign and operator's first name TE2C08 RC QDuring a VHF/UHF contest, in which band section would you expect to find Qthe highest level of contest activity? AAt the top of each band, usually in a segment reserved for contests BIn the middle of each band, usually on the national calling frequency CAt the bottom of each band, usually in the weak signal segment DIn the middle of the band, usually 25 kHz above the national calling Dfrequency TE2C09 RD QWhich of the following frequency ranges is reserved by "gentlemen's Qagreement" for DX contacts during international 6-meter contests? A50.000 to 50.025 MHz B50.050 to 50.075 MHz C50.075 to 50.100 MHz D50.100 to 50.125 MHz TE2C10 RC QIf you are in the US calling a station in Texas on a frequency of 1832 QkHz and a station replies that you are "in the window", what does this Qmean? AYou are operating out of the band privileges of your license BYou are calling at the wrong time of day to be within the window of Bfrequencies that can be received in Texas at that time CYour are transmitting in a frequency segment that is reserved for Cinternational DX contacts by "gentlemen's agreement" DYour modulation has reached an undesirable level and you are Dinterfering with another contact TE2C11 RB QDuring low sunspot activity, if DX signals become weak and fluttery from QEurope across an entire HF band two to three hours after sunset, what Qcould you do to find other European DX stations? ASwitch to a higher frequency HF band, because the MUF has increased BSwitch to a lower frequency HF band, because the MUF has decreased CWait 90 minutes or so for the signal degradation to pass DWait 24 hours before attempting another communication on the band 'E2D Digital Operating: Facsimile; AMTEX; Packet clusters; Packet 'bulletin boards TE2D01 RB QWhat is the most common method of transmitting data emissions below 30 QMHz? ADTMF tones modulating an FM signal BFSK (frequency-shift keying) of an RF carrier CAFSK (audio frequency-shift keying) of an FM signal DKey-operated on/off switching of an RF carrier TE2D02 RA QWhat do the letters "FEC" mean as they relate to AMTOR operation? AForward Error Correction BFirst Error Correction CFatal Error Correction DFinal Error Correction TE2D03 RC QHow is Forward Error Correction implemented? ABy transmitting blocks of 3 data characters from the sending station Ato the receiving station which the receiving station acknowledges BBy transmitting a special FEC algorithm which the receiving station Buses for data validation CBy transmitting each data character twice, since there is no specific Cacknowledgment of reception DBy varying the frequency shift of the transmitted signal according to Da predefined algorithm TE2D04 RB QWhat does "CMD:" mean when it is displayed on the video monitor of a Qpacket station? AThe TNC is ready to exit the packet terminal program BThe TNC is in command mode, ready to receive instructions from the Bkeyboard CThe TNC will exit to the command mode on the next keystroke DThe TNC is in KISS mode running TCP/IP, ready for the next command TE2D05 RD QWhat is the Baudot code? AA code used to transmit data only in modern computer-based data Asystems using seven data bits BA binary code consisting of eight data bits CAn alternate name for Morse code DThe "International Telegraph Alphabet Number 2" (ITA2) which uses Dfive data bits TE2D06 RA QIf an oscilloscope is connected to a TNC or terminal unit and is Qdisplaying two crossed ellipses, one of which suddenly disappears, what Qwould this indicate about the observed signal? AThe phenomenon known as "selective fading" has occurred BOne of the signal filters has saturated CThe receiver should be retuned, as it has probably moved at least 5 CkHz from the desired receive frequency DThe mark and space signal have been inverted and the receiving Dequipment has not yet responded to the change TE2D07 RD QWhich of the following systems is used to transmit high-quality still Qimages by radio? AAMTOR BBaudot RTTY CAMTEX DFacsimile TE2D08 RC QWhat special restrictions are imposed on facsimile (fax) transmissions? ANone; they are allowed on all amateur frequencies BThey are restricted to 7.245 MHz, 14.245 MHz, 21.345, MHz, and 28.945 BMHz CThey are allowed in phone band segments if their bandwidth is no Cgreater than that of a voice signal of the same modulation type DThey are not permitted above 54 MHz TE2D09 RD QWhat is the name for a bulletin transmission system that includes a Qspecial header to allow receiving stations to determine if the bulletin Qhas been previously received? AARQ mode A BFEC mode B CAMTOR DAMTEX TE2D10 RA QWhat is a Packet Cluster Bulletin Board? AA packet bulletin board devoted primarily to serving a special Ainterest group BA group of general-purpose packet bulletin boards linked together in Ba "cluster" CA special interest cluster of packet bulletin boards devoted entirely Cto packet radio computer communications DA special interest telephone/modem bulletin board devoted to amateur DDX operations TE2D11 RC QWhich of the following statements comparing HF and 2-meter packet Qoperations is NOT true? AHF packet typically uses an FSK signal with a data rate of 300 bauds; A2-meter packet uses an AFSK signal with a data rate of 1200 bauds BHF packet and 2-meter packet operations use the same code for Binformation exchange CHF packet is limited to Extra class amateur licensees; 2 meter Cpacket is open to all but Novice class amateur licensees DHF packet operations are limited to "CW/Data"-only band segments; 2- Dmeter packet is allowed wherever FM operations are allowed 'SUBELEMENT E3 - RADIO WAVE PROPAGATION [2 exam questions - 2 groups] N2 'E3A Earth-Moon-Earth (EME or moonbounce) communications; Meteor 'scatter TE3A01 RD QWhat is the maximum separation between two stations communicating by Qmoonbounce? A500 miles maximum, if the moon is at perigee B2000 miles maximum, if the moon is at apogee C5000 miles maximum, if the moon is at perigee DAny distance as long as the stations have a mutual lunar window TE3A02 RB QWhat characterizes libration fading of an earth-moon-earth signal? AA slow change in the pitch of the CW signal BA fluttery, rapid irregular fading CA gradual loss of signal as the sun rises DThe returning echo is several hertz lower in frequency than the Dtransmitted signal TE3A03 RA QWhat are the best days to schedule EME contacts? AWhen the moon is at perigee BWhen the moon is full CWhen the moon is at apogee DWhen the weather at both stations is clear TE3A04 RD QWhat type of receiving system is required for EME communications? AEquipment with very low power output BEquipment with very low dynamic range CEquipment with very low gain DEquipment with very low noise figures TE3A05 RA QWhat transmit and receive time sequencing is normally used on 144 MHz Qwhen attempting an earth-moon-earth contact? ATwo-minute sequences, where one station transmits for a full two Aminutes and then receives for the following two-minutes BOne-minute sequences, where one station transmits for one minute Band then receives for the following one minute CTwo-and-one-half minute sequences, where one station transmits for Ca full 2.5 minutes and then receives for the following 2.5-minutes DFive-minute sequences, where one station transmits for five minutes Dand then receives for the following five minutes TE3A06 RC QWhat transmit and receive time sequencing is normally used on 432 MHz Qwhen attempting an EME contact? ATwo minute sequences, where one station transmits for a full two Aminutes and then receives for the following two minutes BOne minute sequences, where one station transmits for one minute Band then receives for the following one minute CTwo and one half minute sequences, where one station transmits for Ca full 2.5 minutes and then receives for the following 2.5 minutes DFive minute sequences, where one station transmits for five Dminutes and then receives for the following five minutes TE3A07 RB QWhat frequency range would you normally tune to find EME stations in Qthe 2-meter band? A144.000 - 144.001 MHz B144.000 - 144.100 MHz C144.100 - 144.300 MHz D145.000 - 145.100 MHz TE3A08 RD QWhat frequency range would you normally tune to find EME stations in Qthe 70-cm band? A430.000 - 430.150 MHz B430.100 - 431.100 MHz C431.100 - 431.200 MHz D432.000 - 432.100 MHz TE3A09 RA QWhen the earth's atmosphere is struck by a meteor, a cylindrical Qregion of free electrons is formed at what layer of the ionosphere? AThe E layer BThe F1 layer CThe F2 layer DThe D layer TE3A10 RC QWhich range of frequencies is well suited for meteor-scatter Qcommunications? A1.8 - 1.9 MHz B10 - 14 MHz C28 - 148 MHz D220 - 450 MHz TE3A11 RC QWhat transmit and receive time sequencing is normally used on 144 MHz Qwhen attempting a meteor-scatter contact? ATwo-minute sequences, where one station transmits for a full two- Aminutes and then receives for the following two-minutes BOne-minute sequences, where one station transmits for one-minute Band then receives for the following one-minute C15-second sequences, where one station transmits for 15-seconds Cand then receives for the following 15-seconds D30-second sequences, where one station transmits for 30-seconds Dand then receives for the following 30-seconds 'E3B Transequatorial; Long Path; Gray line 'E3B01 (A) 'What is transequatorial propagation? 'A. Propagation between two points at approximately the same distance 'north and south of the magnetic equator 'B. Propagation between two points at approximately the same latitude 'on the magnetic equator 'C. Propagation between two continents by way of ducts along the 'magnetic equator 'D. Propagation between two stations at the same latitude TE3B02 RC QWhat is the approximate maximum range for signals using Qtransequatorial propagation? A1000 miles B2500 miles C5000 miles D7500 miles TE3B03 RC QWhat is the best time of day for transequatorial propagation? AMorning BNoon CAfternoon or early evening DLate at night TE3B04 RA QWhat type of propagation is probably occurring if a beam antenna must Qbe pointed in a direction 180 degrees away from a station to receive Qthe strongest signals? ALong-path BSporadic-E CTransequatorial DAuroral TE3B05 RD QOn what amateur bands can long-path propagation provide signal Qenhancement? A160 to 40 meters B30 to 10 meters C160 to 10 meters D160 to 6 meters TE3B06 RB QWhat amateur band consistently yields long-path enhancement using a Qmodest antenna of relatively high gain? A80 meters B20 meters C10 meters D6 meters TE3B07 RD QWhat is the typical reason for hearing an echo on the received signal Qof a station in Europe while directing your HF antenna toward the Qstation? AThe station's transmitter has poor frequency stability BThe station's transmitter is producing spurious emissions CAuroral conditions are causing a direct and a long-path reflected Csignal to be received DThere are two signals being received, one from the most direct Dpath and one from long-path propagation TE3B08 RD QWhat type of propagation is probably occurring if radio signals travel Qalong the earth's terminator? ATransequatorial BSporadic-E CLong-path DGray-line TE3B09 RA QAt what time of day is gray-line propagation most prevalent? ATwilight, at sunrise and sunset BWhen the sun is directly above the location of the transmitting Bstation CWhen the sun is directly overhead at the middle of the Ccommunications path between the two stations DWhen the sun is directly above the location of the receiving Dstation TE3B10 RB QWhat is the cause of gray-line propagation? AAt midday the sun, being directly overhead, superheats the Aionosphere causing increased refraction of radio waves BAt twilight solar absorption drops greatly while atmospheric Bionization is not weakened enough to reduce the MUF CAt darkness solar absorption drops greatly while atmospheric Cionization remains steady DAt midafternoon the sun heats the ionosphere, increasing radio Dwave refraction and the MUF TE3B11 RC QWhat communications are possible during gray-line propagation? AContacts up to 2,000 miles only on the 10-meter band BContacts up to 750 miles on the 6- and 2-meter bands CContacts up to 8,000 to 10,000 miles on three or four HF bands DContacts up to 12,000 to 15,000 miles on the 10- and 15-meter bands 'SUBELEMENT E4 - AMATEUR RADIO PRACTICES [4 exam questions - 4 groups] N4 'E4A Test Equipment: Spectrum analyzers (Interpreting spectrum 'analyzer displays; Transmitter output spectrum); Logic probes '(Indications of high and low states in digital circuits; Indications 'of pulse conditions in digital circuits) TE4A01 RC QHow does a spectrum analyzer differ from a conventional time-domain Qoscilloscope? AA spectrum analyzer measures ionospheric reflection; an Aoscilloscope displays electrical signals BA spectrum analyzer displays signals in the time domain; an Boscilloscope displays signals in the frequency domain CA spectrum analyzer displays signals in the frequency domain; an Coscilloscope displays signals in the time domain DA spectrum analyzer displays radio frequencies; an oscilloscope Ddisplays audio frequencies TE4A02 RD QWhat does the horizontal axis of a spectrum analyzer display? AAmplitude BVoltage CResonance DFrequency TE4A03 RA QWhat does the vertical axis of a spectrum analyzer display? AAmplitude BDuration CFrequency DTime TE4A04 RA QWhich test instrument is used to display spurious signals from a radio Qtransmitter? AA spectrum analyzer BA wattmeter CA logic analyzer DA time-domain reflectometer TE4A05 RB QWhich test instrument is used to display intermodulation distortion Qproducts from an SSB transmitter? AA wattmeter BA spectrum analyzer CA logic analyzer DA time-domain reflectometer TE4A06 RC QWhich of the following is NOT something you would determine with a Qspectrum analyzer? AThe degree of isolation between the input and output ports of a 2- Ameter duplexer BWhether a crystal is operating on its fundamental or overtone Bfrequency CThe speed at which a transceiver switches from transmit to receive Cwhen being used for packet radio DThe spectral output of a transmitter TE4A07 RB QWhat is an advantage of using a spectrum analyzer to observe the Qoutput from a VHF transmitter? AThere are no advantages; an inexpensive oscilloscope can display Athe same information BIt displays all frequency components of the transmitted signal CIt displays a time-varying representation of the modulation Cenvelope DIt costs much less than any other instrumentation useful for such Dmeasurements TE4A08 RD QWhat advantage does a logic probe have over a voltmeter for monitoring Qthe status of a logic circuit? AIt has many more leads to connect to the circuit than a voltmeter BIt can be used to test analog and digital circuits CIt can read logic circuit voltage more accurately than a voltmeter DIt is smaller and shows a simplified readout TE4A09 RC QWhich test instrument is used to directly indicate high and low Qdigital states? AAn ohmmeter BAn electroscope CA logic probe DA Wheatstone bridge TE4A10 RD QWhat can a logic probe indicate about a digital logic circuit? AA short-circuit fault BAn open-circuit fault CThe resistance between logic modules DThe high and low logic states TE4A11 RA QWhich test instrument besides an oscilloscope is used to indicate Qpulse conditions in a digital logic circuit? AA logic probe BAn ohmmeter CAn electroscope DA Wheatstone bridge 'E4B Receiver performance measurements: Sensitivity; Selectivity; 'Dynamic range; Noise figure TE4B01 RD QWhat two factors determine the sensitivity of a receiver? ADynamic range and third-order intercept BCost and availability CIntermodulation distortion and dynamic range DBandwidth and noise figure TE4B02 RA QWhat is the limiting condition for sensitivity in a communications Qreceiver? AThe noise floor of the receiver BThe power-supply output ripple CThe two-tone intermodulation distortion DThe input impedance to the detector TE4B03 RC QSelectivity can be achieved in the front-end circuitry of a Qcommunications receiver by using what means? AAn audio filter BAn additional RF amplifier stage CA preselector DAn additional IF amplifier stage TE4B04 RD QWhat occurs during CW reception if too narrow a filter bandwidth is Qused in the IF stage of a receiver? AUndesired signals will reach the audio stage BOutput-offset overshoot CCross-modulation distortion DFilter ringing TE4B05 RB QWhat degree of selectivity is desirable in the IF circuitry of an Qamateur RTTY receiver? A100 Hz B300 Hz C6000 Hz D2400 Hz TE4B06 RB QWhat degree of selectivity is desirable in the IF circuitry of a Qsingle-sideband phone receiver? A1 kHz B2.4 kHz C4.2 kHz D4.8 kHz TE4B07 RD QWhat is an undesirable effect of using too wide a filter bandwidth in Qthe IF section of a receiver? AOutput-offset overshoot BFilter ringing CThermal-noise distortion DUndesired signals will reach the audio stage TE4B08 RA QHow should the filter bandwidth of a receiver IF section compare with Qthe bandwidth of a received signal? AIt should be slightly greater than the received-signal bandwidth BIt should be approximately half the received-signal bandwidth CIt should be approximately twice the received-signal bandwidth DIt should be approximately four times the received-signal Dbandwidth TE4B09 RD QWhat degree of selectivity is desirable in the IF circuitry of an QFM-phone receiver? A1 kHz B2.4 kHz C4.2 kHz D15 kHz TE4B10 RD QSelectivity can be achieved in the IF circuitry of a communications Qreceiver by what means? AVary the supply voltage to the local oscillator circuitry BReplace the standard JFET mixer with a bipolar transistor followed Bby a capacitor of the proper value CRemove AGC action from the IF stage and confine it to the audio Cstage only DIncorporate a high-Q filter TE4B11 RC QWhat is meant by the dynamic range of a communications receiver? AThe number of kHz between the lowest and the highest frequency to Awhich the receiver can be tuned BThe maximum possible undistorted audio output of the receiver, Breferenced to one milliwatt CThe ratio between the minimum discernible signal and the largest Ctolerable signal without causing audible distortion products DThe difference between the lowest-frequency signal and the Dhighest-frequency signal detectable without moving the tuning knob TE4B12 RA QWhat type of problems are caused by poor dynamic range in a Qcommunications receiver? ACross-modulation of the desired signal and desensitization from Astrong adjacent signals BOscillator instability requiring frequent retuning, and loss of Bability to recover the opposite sideband, should it be transmitted CCross modulation of the desired signal and insufficient audio Cpower to operate the speaker DOscillator instability and severe audio distortion of all but the Dstrongest received signals TE4B13 RC QWhat defines the noise figure of a communications receiver? AThe level of noise entering the receiver from the antenna BThe relative strength of a received signal 3 kHz away from the Bcarrier frequency CThe level of noise generated in the front end and succeeding Cstages of a receiver DThe ability of a receiver to reject unwanted signals at Dfrequencies close to the desired one 'E4C Noise suppression: Ignition noise; Alternator noise (whine); 'Electronic motor noise; Static; Line noise TE4C01 RA QWhat is one of the most significant problems associated with mobile Qtransceivers? AIgnition noise BDoppler shift CRadar interference DMechanical vibrations TE4C02 RA QWhat is the proper procedure for suppressing electrical noise in a Qmobile transceiver? AApply shielding and filtering where necessary BInsulate all plane sheet metal surfaces from each other CApply antistatic spray liberally to all non-metallic surfaces DInstall filter capacitors in series with all DC wiring TE4C03 RC QWhere can ferrite beads be installed to suppress ignition noise in a Qmobile transceiver? AIn the resistive high-voltage cable BBetween the starter solenoid and the starter motor CIn the primary and secondary ignition leads DIn the antenna lead to the transceiver TE4C04 RC QHow can ensuring good electrical contact between connecting metal Qsurfaces in a vehicle reduce ignition noise? AIt reduces the frequency of the ignition spark BIt helps radiate the ignition noise away from the vehicle CIt encourages lower frequency electrical resonances in the vehicle DIt reduces static buildup on the vehicle body TE4C05 RB QHow can alternator whine be minimized? ABy connecting the radio's power leads to the battery by the Alongest possible path BBy connecting the radio's power leads to the battery by the Bshortest possible path CBy installing a high-pass filter in series with the radio's DC Cpower lead to the vehicle's electrical system DBy installing filter capacitors in series with the DC power lead TE4C06 RD QHow can conducted and radiated noise caused by an automobile Qalternator be suppressed? ABy installing filter capacitors in series with the DC power lead Aand by installing a blocking capacitor in the field lead BBy connecting the radio to the battery by the longest possible path Band installing a blocking capacitor in both leads CBy installing a high-pass filter in series with the radio's power Clead and a low-pass filter in parallel with the field lead DBy connecting the radio's power leads directly to the battery and Dby installing coaxial capacitors in the alternator leads TE4C07 RB QWhat is a major cause of atmospheric static? ASunspots BThunderstorms CAirplanes DMeteor showers TE4C08 RC QHow can you determine if a line-noise interference problem is being Qgenerated within your home? ACheck the power-line voltage with a time-domain reflectometer BObserve the AC waveform on an oscilloscope CTurn off the main circuit breaker and listen on a battery-operated Cradio DObserve the power-line voltage on a spectrum analyzer TE4C09 RB QHow can you reduce noise from an electric motor? AInstall a ferrite bead on the AC line used to power the motor BInstall a brute-force, AC-line filter in series with the motor Bleads CInstall a bypass capacitor in series with the motor leads DUse a ground-fault current interrupter in the circuit used to Dpower the motor TE4C10 RA QWhat type of signal is picked up by electrical wiring near a radio Qtransmitter? AA common-mode signal at the frequency of the radio transmitter BAn electrical-sparking signal CA differential-mode signal at the AC-line frequency DHarmonics of the AC-line frequency TE4C11 RB QWhat type of equipment cannot be used to locate power line noise? AAn AM receiver with a directional antenna BAn FM receiver with a directional antenna CA hand-held RF sniffer DAn ultrasonic transducer, amplifier and parabolic reflector 'E4D Direction finding: Techniques and equipment; Fox hunting TE4D01 RA QWhat is the main drawback of a wire-loop antenna for direction Qfinding? AIt has a bidirectional pattern broadside to the loop BIt is non-rotatable CIt receives equally well in all directions DIt is practical for use only on VHF bands TE4D02 RB QWhat pattern is desirable for a direction-finding antenna? AOne which is non-cardioid BOne with good front-to-back and front-to-side ratios COne with good top-to-bottom and side-to-side ratios DOne with shallow nulls TE4D03 RC QWhat is the triangulation method of direction finding? AThe geometric angle of ground waves and sky waves from the signal Asource are used to locate the source BA fixed receiving station plots three beam headings from the Bsignal source on a map CBeam headings from several receiving stations are used to plot the Csignal source on a map DA fixed receiving station uses three different antennas to plot Dthe location of the signal source TE4D04 RD QWhy is an RF attenuator desirable in a receiver used for direction Qfinding? AIt narrows the bandwidth of the received signal BIt eliminates the effects of isotropic radiation CIt reduces loss of received signals caused by antenna pattern Cnulls DIt prevents receiver overload from extremely strong signals TE4D05 RA QWhat is a sense antenna? AA vertical antenna added to a loop antenna to produce a cardioid Areception pattern BA horizontal antenna added to a loop antenna to produce a cardioid Breception pattern CA vertical antenna added to an Adcock antenna to produce an Comnidirectional reception pattern DA horizontal antenna added to an Adcock antenna to produce a Domnidirectional reception pattern TE4D06 RD QWhat type of antenna is most useful for sky-wave reception in radio Qdirection finding? AA log-periodic dipole array BAn isotropic antenna CA circularly-polarized antenna DAn Adcock antenna TE4D07 RC QWhat is a loop antenna? AA large circularly-polarized antenna BA small coil of wire tightly wound around a ferrite core CSeveral turns of wire wound in the shape of a large open coil DAny antenna coupled to a feed line through an inductive loop of Dwire TE4D08 RD QHow can the output voltage of a loop antenna be increased? ABy reducing the permeability of the loop shield BBy increasing the number of wire turns in the loop and reducing Bthe area of the loop structure CBy reducing either the number of wire turns in the loop or the Carea of the loop structure DBy increasing either the number of wire turns in the loop or the Darea of the loop structure TE4D09 RB QWhy is an antenna system with a cardioid pattern desirable for a Qdirection-finding system? AThe broad-side responses of the cardioid pattern can be aimed at Athe desired station BThe deep null of the cardioid pattern can pinpoint the direction Bof the desired station CThe sharp peak response of the cardioid pattern can pin-point the Cdirection of the desired station DThe high-radiation angle of the cardioid pattern is useful for Dshort-distance direction finding TE4D10 RC QWhat type of terrain can cause errors in direction finding? AHomogeneous terrain BSmooth grassy terrain CVaried terrain DTerrain with no buildings or mountains TE4D11 RA QWhat is the activity known as fox hunting? AAmateurs using receivers and direction-finding techniques attempt Ato locate a hidden transmitter BAmateurs using transmitting equipment and direction-finding Btechniques attempt to locate a hidden receiver CAmateurs helping the government track radio-transmitter collars Cattached to animals DAmateurs assemble stations using generators and portable antennas Dto test their emergency communications skills 'SUBELEMENT E5 - ELECTRICAL PRINCIPLES [6 exam questions - 6 groups] N6 'E5A Photoconductive principles and effects TE5A01 RB QWhat is photoconductivity? AThe conversion of photon energy to electromotive energy BThe increased conductivity of an illuminated semiconductor Bjunction CThe conversion of electromotive energy to photon energy DThe decreased conductivity of an illuminated semiconductor Djunction TE5A02 RA QWhat happens to the conductivity of a photoconductive material when Qlight shines on it? AIt increases BIt decreases CIt stays the same DIt becomes temperature dependent TE5A03 RD QWhat happens to the resistance of a photoconductive material when Qlight shines on it? AIt increases BIt becomes temperature dependent CIt stays the same DIt decreases TE5A04 RC QWhat happens to the conductivity of a semiconductor junction when Qlight shines on it? AIt stays the same BIt becomes temperature dependent CIt increases DIt decreases TE5A05 RD QWhat is an optocoupler? AA resistor and a capacitor BA frequency modulated helium-neon laser CAn amplitude modulated helium-neon laser DAn LED and a phototransistor TE5A06 RA QWhat is an optoisolator? AAn LED and a phototransistor BA P-N junction that develops an excess positive charge when Bexposed to light CAn LED and a capacitor DAn LED and a solar cell TE5A07 RB QWhat is an optical shaft encoder? AAn array of neon or LED indicators whose light transmission path Ais controlled by a rotating wheel BAn array of optocouplers whose light transmission path is Bcontrolled by a rotating wheel CAn array of neon or LED indicators mounted on a rotating wheel in Ca coded pattern DAn array of optocouplers mounted on a rotating wheel in a coded Dpattern TE5A08 RD QWhat characteristic of a crystalline solid will photoconductivity Qchange? AThe capacitance BThe inductance CThe specific gravity DThe resistance TE5A09 RC QWhich material will exhibit the greatest photoconductive effect when Qvisible light shines on it? APotassium nitrate BLead sulfide CCadmium sulfide DSodium chloride TE5A10 RB QWhich material will exhibit the greatest photoconductive effect when Qinfrared light shines on it? APotassium nitrate BLead sulfide CCadmium sulfide DSodium chloride TE5A11 RA QWhich material is affected the most by photoconductivity? AA crystalline semiconductor BAn ordinary metal CA heavy metal DA liquid semiconductor 'E5B Exponential charge/discharge curves (time constants): Definition; 'Time constants in RL and RC circuits TE5B01 RB QWhat is the term for the time required for the capacitor in an RC Qcircuit to be charged to 63.2% of the supply voltage? AAn exponential rate of one BOne time constant COne exponential period DA time factor of one TE5B02 RA QWhat is the term for the time required for the current in an RL Qcircuit to build up to 63.2% of the maximum value? AOne time constant BAn exponential period of one CA time factor of one DOne exponential rate TE5B03 RD QWhat is the term for the time it takes for a charged capacitor in an QRC circuit to discharge to 36.8% of its initial value of stored Qcharge? AOne discharge period BAn exponential discharge rate of one CA discharge factor of one DOne time constant TE5B04 RC QThe capacitor in an RC circuit is charged to what percentage of the Qsupply voltage after two time constants? A36.8% B63.2% C86.5% D95% TE5B05 RD QThe capacitor in an RC circuit is discharged to what percentage of the Qstarting voltage after two time constants? A86.5% B63.2% C36.8% D13.5% TE5B06 RA QWhat is the time constant of a circuit having two 100-microfarad Qcapacitors and two 470-kilohm resistors all in series? A47 seconds B101.1 seconds C103 seconds D220 seconds TE5B07 RD QWhat is the time constant of a circuit having two 220-microfarad Qcapacitors and two 1-megohm resistors all in parallel? A47 seconds B101.1 seconds C103 seconds D220 seconds TE5B08 '(4BE-2B.12) RC QWhat is the time constant of a circuit having a 220-microfarad Qcapacitor in series with a 470-kilohm resistor? A47 seconds B80 seconds C103 seconds D220 seconds TE5B09 RA QHow long does it take for an initial charge of 20 V DC to decrease to Q7.36 V DC in a 0.01-microfarad capacitor when a 2-megohm resistor is Qconnected across it? A0.02 seconds B0.08 seconds C450 seconds D1350 seconds TE5B10 RB QHow long does it take for an initial charge of 20 V DC to decrease to Q0.37 V DC in a 0.01-microfarad capacitor when a 2-megohm resistor is Qconnected across it? A0.02 seconds B0.08 seconds C450 seconds D1350 seconds TE5B11 RC QHow long does it take for an initial charge of 800 V DC to decrease to Q294 V DC in a 450-microfarad capacitor when a 1-megohm resistor is Qconnected across it? A0.02 seconds B0.08 seconds C450 seconds D1350 seconds 'E5C Impedance diagrams: Basic principles of Smith charts TE5C01 RA QWhat type of graph can be used to calculate impedance along Qtransmission lines? AA Smith chart BA logarithmic chart CA Jones chart DA radiation pattern chart TE5C02 RB QWhat type of coordinate system is used in a Smith chart? AVoltage and current circles BResistance and reactance circles CVoltage and current lines DResistance and reactance lines TE5C03 RC QWhat type of calculations can be performed using a Smith chart? ABeam headings and radiation patterns BSatellite azimuth and elevation bearings CImpedance and SWR values in transmission lines DCircuit gain calculations TE5C04 RC QWhat are the two families of circles that make up a Smith chart? AResistance and voltage BReactance and voltage CResistance and reactance DVoltage and impedance TE5C05 GE5-1 RA QWhat type of chart is shown in Figure E5-1? ASmith chart BFree-Space radiation directivity chart CVertical-space radiation pattern chart DHorizontal-space radiation pattern chart TE5C06 GE5-1 RB QOn the Smith chart shown in Figure E5-1, what is the name for the Qlarge outer circle bounding the coordinate portion of the chart? APrime axis BReactance axis CImpedance axis DPolar axis TE5C07 GE5-1 RD QOn the Smith chart shown in Figure E5-1, what is the only straight Qline shown? AThe reactance axis BThe current axis CThe voltage axis DThe resistance axis TE5C08 RC QWhat is the process of normalizing with regard to a Smith chart? AReassigning resistance values with regard to the reactance axis BReassigning reactance values with regard to the resistance axis CReassigning resistance values with regard to the prime center DReassigning prime center with regard to the reactance axis TE5C09 RD QWhat are the curved lines on a Smith chart? APortions of current circles BPortions of voltage circles CPortions of resistance circles DPortions of reactance circles TE5C10 RA QWhat is the third family of circles, which are added to a Smith chart Qduring the process of solving problems? AStanding-wave ratio circles BAntenna-length circles CCoaxial-length circles DRadiation-pattern circles TE5C11 RB QHow are the wavelength scales on a Smith chart calibrated? AIn portions of transmission line electrical frequency BIn portions of transmission line electrical wavelength CIn portions of antenna electrical wavelength DIn portions of antenna electrical frequency 'E5D Impedance of RLC networks at specified frequencies TE5D01 RA QIn rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a network Qcomprised of a 0.1-microhenry inductor in series with a 20-ohm Qresistor at 30 MHz? A20 + j19 B20 - j19 C19 + j20 D19 - j20 TE5D02 RA QIn rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a network Qcomprised of a 0.1-microhenry inductor in series with a 30-ohm Qresistor at 5 MHz? A30 + j3 B30 - j3 C3 + j30 D3 - j30 TE5D03 RA QIn rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a network Qcomprised of a 10-microhenry inductor in series with a 40-ohm resistor Qat 500 MHz? A40 + j31,400 B40 - j31,400 C31,400 + j40 D31,400 - j40 TE5D04 RC QIn polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprised of Qa 100-picofarad capacitor in parallel with a 4,000-ohm resistor at 500 QkHz? A2490 ohms, /__51.5_degrees__ B4000 ohms, /__38.5_degrees__ C2490 ohms, /__-51.5_degrees__ D5112 ohms, /__-38.5_degrees__ TE5D05 RB QIn rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a network Qcomprised of a 0.001-microfarad capacitor in series with a 400-ohm Qresistor at 500 kHz? A318 - j400 B400 - j318 C400 + j318 D318 + j400 TE5D06 RC QIn rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a series circuit Qconsisting of a 50-ohm resistor and a 140-picofarad capacitor at 7 QMHz? A162 - j50 B212 - j162 C50 - j162 D50 + j162 TE5D07 RB QIn polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a series circuit Qconsisting of a resistance of 4 ohms, an inductive reactance of 4 ohms, Qand a capacitive reactance of 1 ohm? A6.4 ohms /_53 degrees B5 ohms /_37 degrees C5 ohms /_45 degrees D10 ohms /_-51 degrees TE5D08 GE5-2 RB QWhich point on Figure E5-2 best represents the impedance of a series Qcircuit consisting of a 400-ohm resistor and a 38-picofarad capacitor Qat 14 MHz? APoint 2 BPoint 4 CPoint 5 DPoint 6 TE5D09 GE5-2 RB QWhich point on Figure E5-2 best represents the impedance of a series Qcircuit consisting of a 300-ohm resistor and an 18-microhenry inductor Qat 3.505 MHz? APoint 1 BPoint 3 CPoint 7 DPoint 8 TE5D10 GE5-2 RA QWhich point on Figure E5-2 best represents the impedance of a series Qcircuit consisting of a 300-ohm resistor and a 19-picofarad capacitor Qat 21.200 MHz? APoint 1 BPoint 3 CPoint 7 DPoint 8 TE5D11 GE5-2 RD QWhich point on Figure E5-2 best represents the impedance of a series Qcircuit consisting of a 300-ohm resistor, a 0.64-microhenry inductor Qand a 85-picofarad capacitor at 24.900 MHz? APoint 1 BPoint 3 CPoint 5 DPoint 8 'E5E Impedances and phase angles of series and parallel circuits TE5E01 RB QIn polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprised of Qa 100-ohm-reactance inductor in series with a 100-ohm resistor? A121 ohms, /__35_degrees__ B141 ohms, /__45_degrees__ C161 ohms, /__55_degrees__ D181 ohms, /__65_degrees__ TE5E02 RD QIn polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprised of Qa 100-ohm-reactance inductor, a 100-ohm-reactance capacitor, and a Q100-ohm resistor all connected in series? A100 ohms, /__90_degrees__ B10 ohms, /__0_degrees__ C10 ohms, /__100_degrees__ D100 ohms, /__0_degrees__ TE5E03 RD QIn polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprised of Qa 400-ohm-reactance capacitor in series with a 300-ohm resistor? A240 ohms, /__36.9_degrees__ B240 ohms, /__-36.9_degrees__ C500 ohms, /__53.1_degrees__ D500 ohms, /__-53.1_degrees__ TE5E04 RA QIn polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprised of Qa 300-ohm-reactance capacitor, a 600-ohm-reactance inductor, and a Q400-ohm resistor, all connected in series? A500 ohms, /__37_degrees__ B400 ohms, /__27_degrees__ C300 ohms, /__17_degrees__ D200 ohms, /__10_degrees__ TE5E05 RA QIn polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprised of Qa 400-ohm-reactance inductor in parallel with a 300-ohm resistor? A240 ohms, /__36.9_degrees___ B240 ohms, /__-36.9_degrees__ C500 ohms, /__53.1_degrees__ D500 ohms, /__-53.1_degrees__ TE5E06 RB QIn rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a network Qcomprised of a 1.0-millihenry inductor in series with a 200-ohm Qresistor at 30 kHz? A200 - j188 B200 + j188 C188 - j200 D188 + j200 TE5E07 RC QIn rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a network Qcomprised of a 10-millihenry inductor in series with a 600-ohm Qresistor at 10 kHz? A628 + j600 B628 - j600 C600 + j628 D600 - j628 TE5E08 RB QIn rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a network Qcomprised of a 0.1-microfarad capacitor in series with a 40-ohm Qresistor at 50 kHz? A40 + j32 B40 - j32 C32 - j40 D32 + j40 TE5E09 RD QIn polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprised of Qa 100-ohm-reactance capacitor in series with a 100-ohm resistor? A121 ohms, /__-25_degrees__ B191 ohms, /__-85_degrees__ C161 ohms, /__-65_degrees__ D141 ohms, /__-45_degrees__ TE5E10 RC QIn polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprised of Qa 100-ohm-reactance capacitor in parallel with a 100-ohm resistor? A31 ohms, /__-15_degrees__ B51 ohms, /__-25_degrees__ C71 ohms, /__-45_degrees__ D91 ohms, /__-65_degrees__ TE5E11 RB QIn polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprised of Qa 300-ohm-reactance inductor in series with a 400-ohm resistor? A400 ohms, /__27_degrees__ B500 ohms, /__37_degrees__ C500 ohms, /__47_degrees__ D700 ohms, /__57_degrees__ 'E5F Algebraic operations using complex numbers: Rectangular 'coordinates (real and imaginary parts); Polar coordinates (magnitude 'and angle) TE5F01 RA QWhen using rectangular coordinates to graph the impedance of a Qcircuit, what does the horizontal axis represent? AThe voltage or current associated with the resistive component BThe voltage or current associated with the reactive component CThe sum of the reactive and resistive components DThe difference between the resistive and reactive components TE5F02 RB QWhen using rectangular coordinates to graph the impedance of a Qcircuit, what does the vertical axis represent? AThe voltage or current associated with the resistive component BThe voltage or current associated with the reactive component CThe sum of the reactive and resistive components DThe difference between the resistive and reactive components TE5F03 RC QWhat do the two numbers represent that are used to define a point on Qa graph using rectangular coordinates? AThe horizontal and inverted axes BThe vertical and inverted axes CThe coordinate values along the horizontal and vertical axes DThe phase angle with respect to its prime center TE5F04 RD QIf you plot the impedance of a circuit using the rectangular coordinate Qsystem and find the impedance point falls on the right side of the graph Qon the horizontal line, what do you know about the circuit? AIt has to be a direct current circuit BIt contains resistance and capacitive reactance CIt contains resistance and inductive reactance DIt is equivalent to a pure resistance TE5F05 RB QWhy would you plot the impedance of a circuit using the polar coordinate Qsystem? ATo display the data on an "X-Y" chart BTo give a visual representation of the phase angle CTo graphically represent the DC component DTo show the reactance which is present TE5F06 RD QWhat coordinate system can be used to display the resistive, inductive, Qand/or capacitive reactance components of an impedance? AMaidenhead grid BNational Bureau of Standards CFaraday DRectangular TE5F07 RD QWhat coordinate system can be used to display the phase angle of a Qcircuit containing resistance, inductive and/or capacitive reactance? AMaidenhead grid BNational Bureau of Standards CFaraday DPolar TE5F08 RA QIn polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a circuit of 100 -j100 Qohms impedance? A141 ohms /__-45_degrees__ B100 ohms /__45_degrees__ C100 ohms /__-45_degrees__ D141 ohms /__45_degrees__ TE5F09 RB QIn polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a circuit that has an Qadmittance of 7.09 millisiemens at 45 degrees? A5.03 x 10(-5) ohms /__45_degrees__ B141 ohms /__-45_degrees__ C19,900 ohms /__-45_degrees__ D141 ohms /__45_degrees__ TE5F10 RC QIn rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a circuit that has Qan admittance of 5 millisiemens at -30 degrees? A173 - j100 ohms B200 + j100 ohms C173 + j100 ohms D200 - j100 ohms TE5F11 RA QIn rectangular coordinates, what is the admittance of a circuit that has Qan impedance of 240 ohms at 36.9 degrees? A3.33 x 10(-3) - j2.50 x 10(-3) siemens B3.33 x 10(-3) + j2.50 x 10(-3) siemens C192 + j144 siemens D3.33 - j2.50 siemens 'SUBELEMENT E6 - CIRCUIT COMPONENTS [4 exam questions - 4 groups] N4 'E6A Field-effect transistors (FETs): Enhancement mode; Depletion 'mode; MOS; CMOS; N-channel; P-channel TE6A01 RD QWhat is an enhancement-mode FET? AAn FET with a channel that blocks voltage through the gate BAn FET with a channel that allows a current when the gate voltage is Bzero CAn FET without a channel to hinder current through the gate DAn FET without a channel; no current occurs with zero gate voltage TE6A02 RA QWhat is a depletion-mode FET? AAn FET that has a channel with no gate voltage applied; a current Aflows with zero gate voltage BAn FET that has a channel that blocks current when the gate voltage Bis zero CAn FET without a channel; no current flows with zero gate voltage DAn FET without a channel to hinder current through the gate TE6A03 GE6-1 RB QIn Figure E6-1, what is the schematic symbol for an N-channel MOSFET? A1 B2 C3 D4 TE6A04 GE6-1 RB QIn Figure E6-1, what is the schematic symbol for a P-channel MOSFET? A2 B3 C4 D5 TE6A05 GE6-1 RB QIn Figure E6-1, what is the schematic symbol for an N-channel dual-gate QMOSFET? A2 B4 C5 D6 TE6A06 GE6-1 RC QIn Figure E6-1, what is the schematic symbol for a P-channel dual-gate QMOSFET? A2 B4 C5 D6 TE6A07 GE6-1 RD QIn Figure E6-1, what is the schematic symbol for an N-channel junction QFET? A1 B2 C3 D6 TE6A08 RD QWhat are the three terminals of a field-effect transistor? AGate 1, gate 2, drain BEmitter, base, collector CEmitter, base 1, base 2 DGate, drain, source TE6A09 GE6-1 RA QIn Figure E6-1, what is the schematic symbol for a P-channel junction QFET? A1 B2 C3 D6 TE6A10 RD QWhy do many MOSFET devices have built-in gate-protective Zener diodes? ATo provide a voltage reference for the correct amount of reverse-bias Agate voltage BTo protect the substrate from excessive voltages CTo keep the gate voltage within specifications and prevent the device Cfrom overheating DTo prevent the gate insulation from being punctured by small static Dcharges or excessive voltages TE6A11 RC QWhat do the initials CMOS stand for? ACommon mode oscillating system BComplementary mica-oxide silicon CComplementary metal-oxide semiconductor DComplementary metal-oxide substrate TE6A12 RC QHow does the input impedance of a field-effect transistor compare with Qthat of a bipolar transistor? AThey cannot be compared without first knowing the supply voltage BAn FET has low input impedance; a bipolar transistor has high input Bimpedance CAn FET has high input impedance; a bipolar transistor has low input Cimpedance DThe input impedance of FETs and bipolar transistors is the same 'E6B Operational amplifiers; Phase-locked loops TE6B01 RA QWhat is an operational amplifier? AA high-gain, direct-coupled differential amplifier whose Acharacteristics are determined by components external to the amplifier BA high-gain, direct-coupled audio amplifier whose characteristics are Bdetermined by components external to the amplifier CAn amplifier used to increase the average output of frequency- Cmodulated amateur signals to the legal limit DA program subroutine that calculates the gain of an RF amplifier TE6B02 RB QWhat would be the characteristics of the ideal op-amp? AZero input impedance, infinite output impedance, infinite gain, flat Afrequency response BInfinite input impedance, zero output impedance, infinite gain, flat Bfrequency response CZero input impedance, zero output impedance, infinite gain, flat Cfrequency response DInfinite input impedance, infinite output impedance, infinite gain, Dflat frequency response TE6B03 RA QWhat determines the gain of a closed-loop op-amp circuit? AThe external feedback network BThe collector-to-base capacitance of the PNP stage CThe power supply voltage DThe PNP collector load TE6B04 RC QWhat is meant by the term op-amp input-offset voltage? AThe output voltage of the op-amp minus its input voltage BThe difference between the output voltage of the op-amp and the Binput voltage required in the following stage CThe potential between the amplifier input terminals of the op-amp Cin a closed-loop condition DThe potential between the amplifier input terminals of the op-amp Din an open-loop condition TE6B05 RD QWhat is the input impedance of a theoretically ideal op-amp? A100 ohms B1000 ohms CVery low DVery high TE6B06 RA QWhat is the output impedance of a theoretically ideal op-amp? AVery low BVery high C100 ohms D1000 ohms TE6B07 GE6-2 RD QIn Figure E6-2, what is the schematic symbol for an operational Qamplifier? A1 B3 C5 D6 TE6B08 RC QWhat is a phase-locked loop circuit? AAn electronic servo loop consisting of a ratio detector, reactance Amodulator, and voltage-controlled oscillator BAn electronic circuit also known as a monostable multivibrator CAn electronic servo loop consisting of a phase detector, a low-pass Cfilter and voltage-controlled oscillator DAn electronic circuit consisting of a precision push-pull amplifier Dwith a differential input TE6B09 RD QWhat functions are performed by a phase-locked loop? AWideband AF and RF power amplification BComparison of two digital input signals, digital pulse counter CPhotovoltaic conversion, optical coupling DFrequency synthesis, FM demodulation TE6B10 RB QWhat is the name of a circuit that compares the difference of the output Qfrom a voltage-controlled oscillator (VCO) to a frequency standard and Qproduces an error voltage that changes the VCO's frequency? AA doubly balanced mixer BA phase-locked loop CA differential voltage amplifier DA variable frequency oscillator TE6B11 RA QWhat is the capture range of a phase-locked loop circuit? AThe frequency range over which the circuit can lock BThe voltage range over which the circuit can lock CThe input impedance range over which the circuit can lock DThe range of time it takes the circuit to lock 'E6C TTL digital integrated circuits; CMOS digital integrated 'circuits; Gates TE6C01 RC QWhat is the recommended power supply voltage for TTL series integrated Qcircuits? A12 volts B1.5 volts C5 volts D13.6 volts TE6C02 RA QWhat logic state do the inputs of a TTL device assume if they are left Qopen? AA high-logic state BA low-logic state CThe device becomes randomized and will not provide consistent high or Clow-logic states DOpen inputs on a TTL device are ignored TE6C03 RA QWhat level of input voltage is high in a TTL device operating with a Q5-volt power supply? A2.0 to 5.5 volts B1.5 to 3.0 volts C1.0 to 1.5 volts D-5.0 to -2.0 volts TE6C04 RC QWhat level of input voltage is low in a TTL device operating with a Q5-volt power-supply? A-2.0 to -5.5 volts B2.0 to 5.5 volts C0.0 to 0.8 volts D-0.8 to 0.4 volts TE6C05 RB QWhat is one major advantage of CMOS over other devices? ASmall size BLow power consumption CLow cost DEase of circuit design TE6C06 RC QWhy do CMOS digital integrated circuits have high immunity to noise on Qthe input signal or power supply? ALarger bypass capacitors are used in CMOS circuit design BThe input switching threshold is about two times the power supply Bvoltage CThe input switching threshold is about one-half the power supply Cvoltage DInput signals are stronger TE6C07 GE6-2 RA QIn Figure E6-2, what is the schematic symbol for an AND gate? A1 B2 C3 D4 TE6C08 GE6-2 RB QIn Figure E6-2, what is the schematic symbol for a NAND gate? A1 B2 C3 D4 TE6C09 GE6-2 RB QIn Figure E6-2, what is the schematic symbol for an OR gate? A2 B3 C4 D6 TE6C10 GE6-2 RD QIn Figure E6-2, what is the schematic symbol for a NOR gate? A1 B2 C3 D4 TE6C11 GE6-2 RC QIn Figure E6-2, what is the schematic symbol for a NOT gate? A2 B4 C5 D6 'E6D Vidicon and cathode-ray tube devices; Charge-coupled devices '(CCDs); Liquid crystal displays (LCDs) TE6D01 RC QWhat is the name for the vacuum tube commonly found in amateur television Qcameras? AA traveling-wave tube BA klystron tube CA vidicon tube DA cathode-ray tube TE6D02 RD QHow is the electron beam deflected in a vidicon? ABy varying the beam voltage BBy varying the bias voltage on the beam forming grids inside the tube CBy varying the beam current DBy varying electromagnetic fields TE6D03 RD QWhat type of CRT deflection is better when high-frequency waves are to be Qdisplayed on the screen? AElectromagnetic BTubular CRadar DElectrostatic TE6D04 RD QWhat is cathode ray tube (CRT) persistence? AThe time it takes for an image to appear after the electron beam is Aturned on BThe relative brightness of the display under varying conditions of Bambient light CThe ability of the display to remain in focus under varying Cconditions DThe length of time the image remains on the screen after the beam is Dturned off TE6D05 RA QIf a cathode ray tube (CRT) is designed to operate with an anode voltage Qof 25,000 volts, what will happen if the anode voltage is increased to Q35,000 volts? AThe image size will decrease and the tube will produce X-rays BThe image size will increase and the tube will produce X-rays CThe image will become larger and brighter DThere will be no apparent change TE6D06 RB QExceeding what design rating can cause a cathode ray tube (CRT) to Qgenerate X-rays? AThe heater voltage BThe anode voltage CThe operating temperature DThe operating frequency TE6D07 RC QWhich is NOT true of a charge-coupled device (CCD)? AIt uses a combination of analog and digital circuitry BIt can be used to make an audio delay line CIt can be used as an analog-to-digital converter DIt samples and stores analog signals TE6D08 RC QWhich of the following is true of a charge-coupled device (CCD)? AIts phase shift changes rapidly with frequency BIt is a CMOS analog-to-digital converter CIt samples an analog signal and passes it in stages from the input Cto the output DIt is used in a battery charger circuit TE6D09 RA QWhat function does a charge-coupled device (CCD) serve in a modern video Qcamera? AIt stores photogenerated charges as signals corresponding to pixels BIt generates the horizontal pulses needed for electron beam scanning CIt focuses the light used to produce a pattern of electrical charges Ccorresponding to the image DIt combines audio and video information to produce a composite RF Dsignal TE6D10 RB QWhat is a liquid-crystal display (LCD)? AA modern replacement for a quartz crystal oscillator which displays Aits fundamental frequency BA display that uses a crystalline liquid to change the way light is Brefracted CA frequency-determining unit for a transmitter or receiver DA display that uses a glowing liquid to remain brightly lit in dim Dlight TE6D11 RA QWhat is the principle advantage of liquid-crystal display (LCD) devices? AThey consume low power BThey can display changes instantly CThey are visible in all light conditions DThey can be easily interchanged with other display devices 'SUBELEMENT E7 - PRACTICAL CIRCUITS [4 exam questions - 4 groups] N4 'E7A Digital logic circuits: Flip flops; Astable and monostable 'multivibrators; Gates (AND, NAND, OR, NOR); Positive and negative logic TE7A01 RC QWhat is a bistable multivibrator circuit? AAn "AND" gate BAn "OR" gate CA flip-flop DA clock TE7A02 RC QHow many output level changes are obtained for every two trigger pulses Qapplied to the input of a "T" flip-flop circuit? ANone BOne CTwo DFour TE7A03 RB QThe frequency of an AC signal can be divided electronically by what type Qof digital circuit? AA free-running multivibrator BA bistable multivibrator CAn OR gate DAn astable multivibrator TE7A04 RB QHow many flip-flops are required to divide a signal frequency by 4? A1 B2 C4 D8 TE7A05 RD QWhat is the characteristic function of an astable multivibrator? AIt alternates between two stable states BIt alternates between a stable state and an unstable state CIt blocks either a 0 pulse or a 1 pulse and passes the other DIt alternates between two unstable states TE7A06 RA QWhat is the characteristic function of a monostable multivibrator? AIt switches momentarily to the opposite binary state and then returns Aafter a set time to its original state BIt is a "clock" that produces a continuous square wave oscillating Bbetween 1 and 0 CIt stores one bit of data in either a 0 or 1 state DIt maintains a constant output voltage, regardless of variations in Dthe input voltage TE7A07 RB QWhat logical operation does an AND gate perform? AIt produces a logic "0" at its output only if all inputs are logic A"1" BIt produces a logic "1" at its output only if all inputs are logic B"1" CIt produces a logic "1" at its output if only one input is a logic C"1" DIt produces a logic "1" at its output if all inputs are logic "0" TE7A08 RD QWhat logical operation does a NAND gate perform? AIt produces a logic "0" at its output only when all inputs are logic A"0" BIt produces a logic "1" at its output only when all inputs are logic B"1" CIt produces a logic "0" at its output if some but not all of its Cinputs are logic "1" DIt produces a logic "0" at its output only when all inputs are logic D"1" TE7A09 RA QWhat logical operation does an OR gate perform? AIt produces a logic "1" at its output if any input is or all inputs Aare logic "1" BIt produces a logic "0" at its output if all inputs are logic "1" CIt produces a logic "0" at its output if all inputs are logic "0" DIt produces a logic "1" at its output if all inputs are logic "0" TE7A10 RC QWhat logical operation does a NOR gate perform? AIt produces a logic "0" at its output only if all inputs are logic A"0" BIt produces a logic "1" at its output only if all inputs are logic B"1" CIt produces a logic "0" at its output if any input is or all inputs Care logic "1" DIt produces a logic "1" at its output only when none of its inputs are Dlogic "0" TE7A11 RC QWhat is a truth table? AA table of logic symbols that indicate the high logic states of an Aop-amp BA diagram showing logic states when the digital device's output is Btrue CA list of input combinations and their corresponding outputs that Ccharacterize the function of a digital device DA table of logic symbols that indicates the low logic states of an Dop-amp TE7A12 RD QIn a positive-logic circuit, what level is used to represent a logic 1? AA low level BA positive-transition level CA negative-transition level DA high level TE7A13 RA QIn a negative-logic circuit, what level is used to represent a logic 1? AA low level BA positive-transition level CA negative-transition level DA high level 'E7B Digital frequency divider circuits; Frequency marker generators; 'Frequency counters TE7B01 RD QWhat is the purpose of a prescaler circuit? AIt converts the output of a JK flip-flop to that of an RS flip-flop BIt multiplies an HF signal so a low-frequency counter can display the Boperating frequency CIt prevents oscillation in a low-frequency counter circuit DIt divides an HF signal so a low-frequency counter can display the Doperating frequency TE7B02 RB QHow many states does a decade counter digital IC have? A2 B10 C20 D100 TE7B03 RA QWhat is the function of a decade counter digital IC? AIt produces one output pulse for every ten input pulses BIt decodes a decimal number for display on a seven-segment LED Bdisplay CIt produces ten output pulses for every input pulse DIt adds two decimal numbers TE7B04 RC QWhat additional circuitry is required in a 100-kHz crystal-controlled Qmarker generator to provide markers at 50 and 25 kHz? AAn emitter-follower BTwo frequency multipliers CTwo flip-flops DA voltage divider TE7B05 RB QIf a 1-MHz oscillator is used with a divide-by-ten circuit to make a Qmarker generator, what will the output be? AA 1-MHz sinusoidal signal with harmonics every 100 kHz BA 100-kHz signal with harmonics every 100 kHz CA 1-MHz square wave with harmonics every 1 MHz DA 100-kHz signal modulated by a 10-kHz signal TE7B06 RD QWhat is a crystal-controlled marker generator? AA low-stability oscillator that "sweeps" through a band of Afrequencies BAn oscillator often used in aircraft to determine the craft's Blocation relative to the inner and outer markers at airports CA high-stability oscillator whose output frequency and amplitude can Cbe varied over a wide range DA high-stability oscillator that generates a series of reference Dsignals at known frequency intervals TE7B07 RA QWhat type of circuit does NOT make a good marker generator? AA sinusoidal crystal oscillator BA crystal oscillator followed by a class C amplifier CA TTL device wired as a crystal oscillator DA crystal oscillator and a frequency divider TE7B08 RC QWhat is the purpose of a marker generator? ATo add audio markers to an oscilloscope BTo provide a frequency reference for a phase locked loop CTo provide a means of calibrating a receiver's frequency settings DTo add time signals to a transmitted signal TE7B09 RA QWhat does the accuracy of a frequency counter depend on? AThe internal crystal reference BA voltage-regulated power supply with an unvarying output CAccuracy of the AC input frequency to the power supply DProper balancing of the power-supply diodes TE7B10 RC QHow does a frequency counter determine the frequency of a signal? AIt counts the total number of pulses in a circuit BIt monitors a WWV reference signal for comparison with the measured Bsignal CIt counts the number of input pulses in a specific period of time DIt converts the phase of the measured signal to a voltage which is Dproportional to the frequency TE7B11 RA QWhat is the purpose of a frequency counter? ATo indicate the frequency of the strongest input signal which is Awithin the counter's frequency range BTo generate a series of reference signals at known frequency Bintervals CTo display all frequency components of a transmitted signal DTo compare the difference between the input and a voltage-controlled Doscillator and produce an error voltage 'E7C Active audio filters: Characteristics; Basic circuit design; 'Preselector applications TE7C01 RB QWhat determines the gain and frequency characteristics of an op-amp RC Qactive filter? AThe values of capacitances and resistances built into the op-amp BThe values of capacitances and resistances external to the op-amp CThe input voltage and frequency of the op-amp's DC power supply DThe output voltage and smoothness of the op-amp's DC power supply TE7C02 RC QWhat causes ringing in a filter? AThe slew rate of the filter BThe bandwidth of the filter CThe filter shape, as measured in the frequency domain DThe gain of the filter TE7C03 RD QWhat are the advantages of using an op-amp instead of LC elements in an Qaudio filter? AOp-amps are more rugged and can withstand more abuse than can LC Aelements BOp-amps are fixed at one frequency COp-amps are available in more varieties than are LC elements DOp-amps exhibit gain rather than insertion loss TE7C04 RC QWhat type of capacitors should be used in an op-amp RC active filter Qcircuit? AElectrolytic BDisc ceramic CPolystyrene DPaper dielectric TE7C05 RA QHow can unwanted ringing and audio instability be prevented in a Qmultisection op-amp RC audio filter circuit? ARestrict both gain and Q BRestrict gain, but increase Q CRestrict Q, but increase gain DIncrease both gain and Q TE7C06 '4BG-3B.4 RA QWhat parameter must be selected when designing an audio filter using an Qop-amp? ABandpass characteristic BDesired current gain CTemperature coefficient DOutput-offset overshoot TE7C07 RB QThe design of a preselector involves a tradeoff between bandwidth and Qwhat other factor? AThe amount of ringing BInsertion loss CThe number of parts DThe choice of capacitors or inductors TE7C08 RA QWhen designing an op-amp RC active filter for a given frequency range and QQ, what steps are typically followed when selecting the external Qcomponents? AStandard capacitor values are chosen first, the resistances are Acalculated, then resistors of the nearest standard value are used BStandard resistor values are chosen first, the capacitances are Bcalculated, then capacitors of the nearest standard value are used CStandard resistor and capacitor values are used, the circuit is Ctested, then additional resistors are added to make any adjustments DStandard resistor and capacitor values are used, the circuit is Dtested, then additional capacitors are added to make any adjustments TE7C09 RC QWhen designing an op-amp RC active filter for a given frequency range and QQ, why are the external capacitance values usually chosen first, then the Qexternal resistance values calculated? AAn op-amp will perform as an active filter using only standard Aexternal capacitance values BThe calculations are easier to make with known capacitance values Brather than with known resistance values CCapacitors with unusual capacitance values are not widely available, Cso standard values are used to begin the calculations DThe equations for the calculations can only be used with known Dcapacitance values TE7C10 RD QWhat are the principle uses of an op-amp RC active filter in amateur Qcircuitry? AHigh-pass filters used to block RFI at the input to receivers BLow-pass filters used between transmitters and transmission lines CFilters used for smoothing power-supply output DAudio filters used for receivers TE7C11 RD QWhere should an op-amp RC active audio filter be placed in an amateur Qreceiver? AIn the IF strip, immediately before the detector BIn the audio circuitry immediately before the speaker or phone jack CBetween the balanced modulator and frequency multiplier DIn the low-level audio stages 'E7D Integrated operational amplifiers: Inverting amp; Noninverting 'amplifiers; Voltage gain; Frequency response; FET amplifier circuits; 'Single-stage amplifier applications TE7D01 RA QWhat is the phase relationship between the input and output signals of an Qinverting op-amp circuit? A180 degrees out of phase BIn phase C90 degrees out of phase D60 degrees out of phase TE7D02 RB QWhat is the phase relationship between the input and output signals of a Qnoninverting op-amp circuit? A180 degrees out of phase BIn phase C90 degrees out of phase D60 degrees out of phase TE7D03 GE7-1 RD QWhat voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-1 when R1 Qis 1000 ohms and RF is 100 kilohms? A0.01 B1 C10 D100 TE7D04 GE7-1 RC QWhat voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-1 when R1 Qis 1800 ohms and RF is 68 kilohms? A1 B0.03 C38 D76 TE7D05 GE7-1 RB QWhat voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-1 when R1 Qis 3300 ohms and RF is 47 kilohms? A28 B14 C7 D0.07 TE7D06 GE7-1 RC QWhat voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-1 when R1 Qis 10 ohms and RF is 47 kilohms? A0.00021 B9400 C4700 D2350 TE7D07 RD QHow does the gain of a theoretically ideal operational amplifier vary Qwith frequency? AIt increases linearly with increasing frequency BIt decreases linearly with increasing frequency CIt decreases logarithmically with increasing frequency DIt does not vary with frequency TE7D08 RB QWhat essentially determines the input impedance of a FET common-source Qamplifier? AThe resistance between the drain and substrate BThe gate-biasing network CThe resistance between the source and drain DThe resistance between the source and substrate TE7D09 RA QWhat essentially determines the output impedance of a FET common-source Qamplifier? AThe drain resistor BThe input impedance of the FET CThe drain supply voltage DThe gate supply voltage TE7D10 RA QWhat will be the voltage at the output in the circuit shown in figure E7- Q1, if R1 is 1,000 ohms and RF is 1,000 ohms when -10 millivolts is Qapplied to the input? A10 millivolts B100 millivolts C-10 millivolts D-100 millivolts TE7D11 GE7-1 RD QWhat will be the voltage of the circuit shown in Figure E7-1 if R1 is Q1000 ohms and RF is 10,000 ohms and 2.3 volts is applied to the input? A2.3 volts B23 volts C-2.3 volts D-23 volts 'SUBELEMENT E8 - SIGNALS AND EMISSIONS [4 exam questions - 4 groups] N4 'E8A Pulse modulation: Width; Position TE8A01 RA QIn a pulse-modulation system, why is the transmitter's peak power much Qgreater than its average power? AThe signal duty cycle is less than 100% BThe signal reaches peak amplitude only when voice modulated CThe signal reaches peak amplitude only when voltage spikes are Cgenerated within the modulator DThe signal reaches peak amplitude only when the pulses are also Damplitude modulated TE8A02 RC QWhat is one way that voice is transmitted in a pulse-width modulation Qsystem? AA standard pulse is varied in amplitude by an amount depending on the Avoice waveform at that instant BThe position of a standard pulse is varied by an amount depending on Bthe voice waveform at that instant CA standard pulse is varied in duration by an amount depending on the Cvoice waveform at that instant DThe number of standard pulses per second varies depending on the Dvoice waveform at that instant TE8A03 RD QIn a pulse-position modulation system, what parameter does the modulating Qsignal vary? AThe number of pulses per second BBoth the frequency and amplitude of the pulses CThe duration of the pulses DThe time at which each pulse occurs TE8A04 RB QIn a pulse-width modulation system, what parameter does the modulating Qsignal vary? APulse frequency BPulse duration CPulse amplitude DPulse intensity TE8A05 RC QWhat is the type of modulation in which the modulating signal varies the Qduration of the transmitted pulse? AAmplitude modulation BFrequency modulation CPulse-width modulation DPulse-height modulation TE8A06 RD QWhat duration and rate of pulses does a typical pulse modulation Qtransmitter use? A5-micro second pulses at a 5-kHz rate B5-micro second pulses at a 1-kHz rate C1-micro second pulses at a 5-kHz rate D1-micro second pulses at a 1-kHz rate TE8A07 RA QHow are the pulses of a pulse-modulated signal usually transmitted? AA pulse of relatively short duration is sent; a relatively long Aperiod of time separates each pulse BA pulse of relatively long duration is sent; a relatively short Bperiod of time separates each pulse CA group of short pulses are sent in a relatively short period of Ctime; a relatively long period of time separates each group DA group of short pulses are sent in a relatively long period of time; Da relatively short period of time separates each group TE8A08 RB QWhat common circuit employs a pulse-width modulator? AA passive audio filter BA switching regulator CAn impedance-matching network DA flip-flop TE8A09 RA QWhat function does a pulse-width modulator perform in a switching Qregulator power supply? AIt turns the switch transistor on and off at the proper time to Aensure smooth regulation BIt increases and decreases the load current at the proper time to Bensure smooth regulation CIt increases or decreases the frequency of the input voltage to Censure that AC pulses are sent at regular intervals to the rectifier DIt turns the rectifier on and off at regular intervals to avoid Doverheating the power supply 'E8B Digital signals: CW; Baudot; ASCII; Packet; AMTOR; Clover; 'Information rate vs bandwidth TE8B01 RD QWhat digital code consists of elements having unequal length? AASCII BAX.25 CBaudot DMorse code TE8B02 RB QWhat are some of the differences between the Baudot digital code and QASCII? ABaudot uses four data bits per character, ASCII uses eight; Baudot Auses one character as a shift code, ASCII has no shift code BBaudot uses five data bits per character, ASCII uses eight; Baudot Buses one character as a shift code, ASCII has no shift code CBaudot uses six data bits per character, ASCII uses eight; Baudot has Cno shift code, ASCII uses one character as a shift code DBaudot uses seven data bits per character, ASCII uses eight; Baudot Dhas no shift code, ASCII uses one character as a shift code TE8B03 RC QWhat is one advantage of using the ASCII code for data communications? AIt includes built-in error-correction features BIt contains fewer information bits per character than any other code CIt is possible to transmit both upper and lower case text DIt uses one character as a "shift" code to send numeric and special Dcharacters TE8B04 RB QWhat digital communications system is well suited for meteor-scatter Qcommunications? AACSSB BPacket radio CAMTOR DSpread spectrum TE8B05 RD QWhat type of error control system does Mode A AMTOR use? AEach character is sent twice BThe receiving station checks the calculated frame check sequence B(FCS) against the transmitted FCS CThe receiving station checks the calculated frame parity against the Ctransmitted parity DThe receiving station automatically requests repeats when needed TE8B06 RA QWhat type of error control system does Mode B AMTOR use? AEach character is sent twice BThe receiving station checks the calculated frame check sequence B(FCS) against the transmitted FCS CThe receiving station checks the calculated frame parity against the Ctransmitted parity DThe receiving station automatically requests repeats when needed TE8B07 RC QWhat is the necessary bandwidth of a 13-WPM international Morse code Qemission A1A transmission? AApproximately 13 Hz BApproximately 26 Hz CApproximately 52 Hz DApproximately 104 Hz TE8B08 RC QWhat is the necessary bandwidth for a 170-hertz shift, 300-baud ASCII Qemission J2D transmission? A0 Hz B0.3 kHz C0.5 kHz D1.0 kHz TE8B09 RD QWhat is the necessary bandwidth of a 1000-Hz shift, 1200-baud ASCII Qemission F1D transmission? A1000 Hz B1200 Hz C440 Hz D2400 Hz TE8B10 RA QWhat is the necessary bandwidth of a 4800-Hz frequency shift, 9600-baud QASCII emission F1D transmission? A15.36 kHz B9.6 kHz C4.8 kHz D5.76 kHz 'E8C Amplitude compandored single-sideband (ACSSB); Spread-spectrum 'communications TE8C01 RC QWhat is amplitude compandored single-sideband? AReception of single-sideband signal with a conventional CW receiver BReception of single-sideband signal with a conventional FM receiver CSingle-sideband signal incorporating speech compression at the Ctransmitter and speech expansion at the receiver DSingle-sideband signal incorporating speech expansion at the Dtransmitter and speech compression at the receiver TE8C02 RA QWhat is meant by compandoring? ACompressing speech at the transmitter and expanding it at the Areceiver BUsing an audio-frequency signal to produce pulse-length modulation CCombining amplitude and frequency modulation to produce a Csingle-sideband signal DDetecting and demodulating a single-sideband signal by converting it Dto a pulse-modulated signal TE8C03 RA QWhat is the purpose of a pilot tone in an amplitude-compandored single- Qsideband system? AIt permits rapid tuning of a mobile receiver BIt replaces the suppressed carrier at the receiver CIt permits rapid change of frequency to escape high-powered Cinterference DIt acts as a beacon to indicate the present propagation Dcharacteristic of the band TE8C04 RD QWhat is the approximate frequency of the pilot tone in an amplitude- Qcompandored single-sideband system? A1 kHz B5 MHz C455 kHz D3 kHz TE8C05 RB QHow many more voice transmissions can be packed into a given frequency Qband for amplitude-compandored single-sideband systems over conventional QFM-phone systems? A2 B4 C8 D16 TE8C06 RD QWhat term describes a wide-bandwidth communications system in which the QRF carrier varies according to some predetermined sequence? AAmplitude compandored single sideband BAMTOR CTime-domain frequency modulation DSpread-spectrum communication TE8C07 RA QWhat spread-spectrum communications technique alters the center frequency Qof a conventional carrier many times per second in accordance with a Qpseudo-random list of channels? AFrequency hopping BDirect sequence CTime-domain frequency modulation DFrequency compandored spread-spectrum TE8C08 RB QWhat spread-spectrum communications technique uses a very fast binary bit Qstream to shift the phase of an RF carrier? AFrequency hopping BDirect sequence CBinary phase-shift keying DPhase compandored spread-spectrum TE8C09 RC QWhat controls the spreading sequence of an amateur spread-spectrum Qtransmission? AA frequency-agile linear amplifier BA crystal-controlled filter linked to a high-speed crystal switching Bmechanism CA binary linear-feedback shift register DA binary code which varies if propagation changes TE8C10 RD QWhy are spread-spectrum communications so resistant to interference? AInterfering signals are removed by a frequency-agile crystal filter BSpread-spectrum transmitters use much higher power than conventional Bcarrier-frequency transmitters CSpread-spectrum transmitters can "hunt" for the best carrier Cfrequency to use within a given RF spectrum DOnly signals using the correct spreading sequence are received TE8C11 RB QWhy do spread-spectrum communications interfere so little with Qconventional channelized communications in the same band? AA spread-spectrum transmitter avoids channels within the band which Aare in use by conventional transmitters BSpread-spectrum signals appear only as low-level noise in Bconventional receivers CSpread-spectrum signals change too rapidly to be detected by Cconventional receivers DSpecial crystal filters are needed in conventional receivers to Ddetect spread-spectrum signals 'E8D Peak amplitude (positive and negative); Peak-to-peak values: 'Measurements TE8D01 RD QWhat is the term for the amplitude of the maximum positive excursion of Qa signal as viewed on an oscilloscope? APeak-to-peak voltage BInverse peak negative voltage CRMS voltage DPeak positive voltage TE8D02 RD QWhat is the term for the amplitude of the maximum negative excursion of Qa signal as viewed on an oscilloscope? APeak-to-peak voltage BInverse peak positive voltage CRMS voltage DPeak negative voltage TE8D03 RA QWhat is the easiest voltage amplitude dimension to measure by viewing a Qpure sine wave signal on an oscilloscope? APeak-to-peak voltage BRMS voltage CAverage voltage DDC voltage TE8D04 RB QWhat is the relationship between the peak-to-peak voltage and the peak Qvoltage amplitude in a symmetrical waveform? A1:1 B2:1 C3:1 D4:1 TE8D05 RA QWhat input-amplitude parameter is valuable in evaluating the Qsignal-handling capability of a Class A amplifier? APeak voltage BRMS voltage CAn average reading power output meter DResting voltage TE8D06 RD QTo ensure you do not exceed the maximum allowable power, what kind of Qmeter would you use to monitor the output signal of a properly adjusted Qsingle-sideband transmitter? AAn SWR meter reading in the forward direction BA modulation meter CAn average reading power output meter DA peak-reading power output meter TE8D07 RB QWhat is the PEP output of a transmitter that has a maximum peak of 30 Qvolts to a 50-ohm load as observed on an oscilloscope? A4.5 watts B9 watts C16 watts D18 watts TE8D08 RA QWhat is the average power dissipated by a 50-ohm resistive load during Qone complete RF cycle having a peak voltage of 35 volts? A12.2 watts B9.9 watts C24.5 watts D16 watts TE8D09 RD QIf an RMS reading AC voltmeter reads 65 volts on a sinusoidal waveform, Qwhat is the peak-to-peak voltage? A46 volts B92 volts C130 volts D184 volts TE8D10 RD QIf an RMS reading voltmeter reads 34 volts on a sinusoidal waveform, what Qis the peak voltage? A123 volts B96 volts C55 volts D48 volts TE8D11 RA QWhat is the advantage of using a peak-reading voltmeter to monitor the Qoutput of a single-sideband transmitter? AIt would be easy to calculate the PEP output of the transmitter BIt would be easy to calculate the RMS output power of the transmitter CIt would be easy to calculate the SWR on the transmission line DIt would be easy to observe the output amplitude variations 'SUBELEMENT E9 - ANTENNAS AND FEED LINES [4 exam questions - 4 groups] N4 'E9A Isotropic radiators: Definition; Used as a standard for 'comparison; Radiation pattern TE9A01 RA QWhat is an isotropic radiator? AA hypothetical, omnidirectional antenna BA directional antenna which is aimed toward the tropical latitudes CAn antenna high enough in the air that its directive pattern is Csubstantially unaffected by the ground beneath it DA directional antenna whose radiation pattern can be aimed in any Dcompass direction TE9A02 RC QWhich of the following describes an isotropic radiator? AA grounded radiator used to measure earth conductivity BA horizontal radiator used to compare Yagi antennas CA theoretical radiator used to compare other antennas DA spacecraft radiator used to direct signals toward the earth TE9A03 RA QWhen is it useful to refer to an isotropic radiator? AWhen comparing the gains of directional antennas BWhen testing a transmission line for standing-wave ratio CWhen directing a transmission toward the tropical latitudes DWhen using a dummy load to tune a transmitter TE9A04 RD QWhat theoretical reference antenna provides a comparison for antenna Qmeasurements? AQuarter-wave vertical BYagi CBobtail curtain DIsotropic radiator TE9A05 RB QFor what purpose would an isotropic radiator be used? ATo compare the signal strengths of different transmitters at a Adistant point BAs a reference for antenna gain measurements CAs a dummy load for tuning transmitters DTo measure the standing-wave ratio on a transmission line TE9A06 RB QHow much gain does a 1/2-wavelength dipole have over an isotropic Qradiator? AAbout 1.5 dB BAbout 2.1 dB CAbout 3.0 dB DAbout 6.0 dB TE9A07 RA QHow much gain does an antenna have over a 1/2-wavelength dipole when it Qhas 6 dB gain over an isotropic radiator? AAbout 3.9 dB BAbout 6.0 dB CAbout 8.1 dB DAbout 10.0 dB TE9A08 RB QHow much gain does an antenna have over a 1/2-wavelength dipole when it Qhas 12 dB gain over an isotropic radiator? AAbout 6.1 dB BAbout 9.9 dB CAbout 12.0 dB DAbout 14.1 dB TE9A09 RD QWhich of the following antennas has no gain in any direction? AQuarter-wave vertical BYagi CHalf-wave dipole DIsotropic radiator TE9A10 RC QWhich of the following describes the radiation pattern of an isotropic Qradiator? AA tear drop in the vertical plane BA circle in the horizontal plane CA sphere with the antenna in the center DCrossed polarized with a spiral shape TE9A11 RD QWhich of the following describes the directivity of an isotropic Qradiator? ADirectivity in the E plane BDirectivity in the H plane CDirectivity in the Z plane DNo directivity at all 'E9B Phased vertical antennas; Radiation patterns; Beverage antennas; 'Rhombic antennas; Resonant; Nonresonant; Radiation pattern TE9B01 RD QWhat is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas Qspaced 1/2-wavelength apart and fed 180 degrees out of phase? AUnidirectional cardioid BOmnidirectional CFigure-8 broadside to the antennas DFigure-8 end-fire in line with the antennas TE9B02 RA QWhat is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas Qspaced 1/4-wavelength apart and fed 90 degrees out of phase? AUnidirectional cardioid BFigure-8 end-fire CFigure-8 broadside DOmnidirectional TE9B03 RC QWhat is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas Qspaced 1/2-wavelength apart and fed in phase? AOmnidirectional BCardioid unidirectional CFigure-8 broadside to the antennas DFigure-8 end-fire in line with the antennas TE9B04 RD QWhat is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas Qspaced 1/4-wavelength apart and fed 180 degrees out of phase? AOmnidirectional BCardioid unidirectional CFigure-8 broadside to the antennas DFigure-8 end-fire in line with the antennas TE9B05 RD QWhat is the radiation pattern for two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas Qspaced 1/8-wavelength apart and fed 180 degrees out of phase? AOmnidirectional BCardioid unidirectional CFigure-8 broadside to the antennas DFigure-8 end-fire in line with the antennas TE9B06 RB QWhat is the radiation pattern for two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas Qspaced 1/4-wavelength apart and fed in phase? ASubstantially unidirectional BElliptical CCardioid unidirectional DFigure-8 end-fire in line with the antennas TE9B07 RB QWhich of the following is the best description of a resonant rhombic Qantenna? AUnidirectional; four-sided, each side a half-wavelength long; Aterminated in a resistance equal to its characteristic impedance BBidirectional; four-sided, each side approximately one wavelength Blong; open at the end opposite the transmission line connection CFour-sided; an LC network at each vertex except for the transmission Cconnection; tuned to resonate at the operating frequency DFour-sided, each side of a different physical length; traps at each Dvertex for changing resonance according to band usage TE9B08 RC QWhat is a nonresonant rhombic antenna? AAn antenna resonant at approximately double the frequency of the Aintended band of operation BAn open-ended bidirectional antenna CA unidirectional antenna terminated in a resistance equal to its Ccharacteristic impedance DA horizontal triangular antenna consisting of two adjacent sides and Dthe long diagonal of a resonant rhombic antenna TE9B09 RA QWhat are the advantages of a nonresonant rhombic antenna? AWide frequency range, high gain and high front-to-back ratio BHigh front-to-back ratio, compact size and high gain CUnidirectional radiation pattern, high gain and compact size DBidirectional radiation pattern, high gain and wide frequency range TE9B10 RC QWhat are the disadvantages of a nonresonant rhombic antenna? AA large area for proper installation and a narrow bandwidth BA large area for proper installation and a low front-to-back ratio CA large area and four sturdy supports for proper installation DA large amount of aluminum tubing and a low front-to-back ratio TE9B11 RB QWhat is the effect of a terminating resistor on a rhombic antenna? AIt reflects the standing waves on the antenna elements back to the Atransmitter BIt changes the radiation pattern from essentially bidirectional to Bessentially unidirectional CIt changes the radiation pattern from horizontal to vertical Cpolarization DIt decreases the ground loss 'E9C Space and satellite communications antennas: Gain; Beamwidth; 'Tracking TE9C01 RA QWhat factors determine the receiving antenna gain required at an amateur Qsatellite station in earth operation? AHeight, transmitter power and antennas of satellite BLength of transmission line and impedance match between receiver and Btransmission line CPreamplifier location on transmission line and presence or absence of CRF amplifier stages DHeight of earth antenna and satellite orbit TE9C02 RA QWhat factors determine the EIRP required by an amateur satellite station Qin earth operation? ASatellite antennas and height, satellite receiver sensitivity BPath loss, earth antenna gain, signal-to-noise ratio CSatellite transmitter power and orientation of ground receiving Cantenna DElevation of satellite above horizon, signal-to-noise ratio, Dsatellite transmitter power TE9C03 RB QWhat factors determine the EIRP required by an amateur satellite station Qin telecommand operation? APath loss, earth antenna gain, signal-to-noise ratio BSatellite antennas and height, satellite receiver sensitivity CSatellite transmitter power and orientation of ground receiving Cantenna DElevation of satellite above horizon, signal-to-noise ratio, Dsatellite transmitter power TE9C04 RC QHow does the gain of a parabolic dish antenna change when the operating Qfrequency is doubled? AGain does not change BGain is multiplied by 0.707 CGain increases 6 dB DGain increases 3 dB TE9C05 RD QHow does the beamwidth of an antenna vary as the gain is increased? AIt increases geometrically BIt increases arithmetically CIt is essentially unaffected DIt decreases TE9C06 RB QWhat is the beamwidth of a symmetrical pattern antenna with a gain of 20 QdB as compared to an isotropic radiator? A10.1 degrees B20.3 degrees C45.0 degrees D60.9 degrees TE9C07 RB QWhat is the beamwidth of a symmetrical pattern antenna with a gain of 30 QdB as compared to an isotropic radiator? A3.2 degrees B6.4 degrees C37 degrees D60.4 degrees TE9C08 RC QWhat is the beamwidth of a symmetrical pattern antenna with a gain of 15 QdB as compared to an isotropic radiator? A72 degrees B52 degrees C36.1 degrees D3.61 degrees TE9C09 RD QWhat is the beamwidth of a symmetrical pattern antenna with a gain of 12 QdB as compared to an isotropic radiator? A34.8 degrees B45.0 degrees C58.0 degrees D51.0 degrees TE9C10 RC QHow is circular polarization produced using linearly-polarized antennas? AStack two Yagis, fed 90 degrees out of phase, to form an array with Athe respective elements in parallel planes BStack two Yagis, fed in phase, to form an array with the respective Belements in parallel planes CArrange two Yagis perpendicular to each other, with the driven Celements in the same plane, fed 90 degrees out of phase DArrange two Yagis perpendicular to each other, with the driven Delements in the same plane, fed in phase TE9C11 RA QWhy does a satellite communications antenna system for earth operation Qneed to have rotators for both azimuth and elevation control? AIn order to track the satellite as it orbits the earth BBecause the antennas are large and heavy CIn order to point the antenna above the horizon to avoid terrestrial Cinterference DTo rotate antenna polarization along the azimuth and elevate the Dsystem towards the satellite 'E9D Matching antennas to feed lines; Characteristics of open and shorted 'feed lines: 1/8 wavelength; 1/4 wavelength; 3/8 wavelength; 1/2 'wavelength; 1/4 wavelength matching transformers TE9D01 RB QWhat system matches a high-impedance transmission line to a lower Qimpedance antenna by connecting the line to the driven element in two Qplaces, spaced a fraction of a wavelength each side of element center? AThe gamma matching system BThe delta matching system CThe omega matching system DThe stub matching system TE9D02 RA QWhat system matches an unbalanced feed line to an antenna by feeding the Qdriven element both at the center of the element and at a fraction of a Qwavelength to one side of center? AThe gamma matching system BThe delta matching system CThe omega matching system DThe stub matching system TE9D03 RD QWhat impedance matching system uses a short perpendicular section of Qtransmission line connected to the feed line near the antenna? AThe gamma matching system BThe delta matching system CThe omega matching system DThe stub matching system TE9D04 RB QWhat should be the approximate capacitance of the resonating capacitor in Qa gamma matching circuit on a 1/2-wavelength dipole antenna for the Q20-meter wavelength band? A70 pF B140 pF C200 pF D0.2 pF TE9D05 RD QWhat should be the approximate capacitance of the resonating capacitor in Qa gamma matching circuit on a 1/2-wavelength dipole antenna for the Q10-meter wavelength band? A0.2 pF B140 pF C200 pF D70 pF TE9D06 RC QWhat kind of impedance does a 1/8-wavelength transmission line present to Qa generator when the line is shorted at the far end? AA capacitive reactance BThe same as the characteristic impedance of the line CAn inductive reactance DThe same as the input impedance to the final generator stage TE9D07 RC QWhat kind of impedance does a 1/8-wavelength transmission line present to Qa generator when the line is open at the far end? AThe same as the characteristic impedance of the line BAn inductive reactance CA capacitive reactance DThe same as the input impedance of the final generator stage TE9D08 RA QWhat kind of impedance does a 1/4-wavelength transmission line present to Qa generator when the line is shorted at the far end? AA very high impedance BA very low impedance CThe same as the characteristic impedance of the transmission line DThe same as the generator output impedance TE9D09 RB QWhat kind of impedance does a 1/4-wavelength transmission line present to Qa generator when the line is open at the far end? AA very high impedance BA very low impedance CThe same as the characteristic impedance of the line DThe same as the input impedance to the final generator stage TE9D10 RB QWhat kind of impedance does a 1/2-wavelength transmission line present to Qa generator when the line is shorted at the far end? AA very high impedance BA very low impedance CThe same as the characteristic impedance of the line DThe same as the output impedance of the generator TE9D11 RA QWhat kind of impedance does a 1/2-wavelength transmission line present to Qa generator when the line is open at the far end? AA very high impedance BA very low impedance CThe same as the characteristic impedance of the line DThe same as the output impedance of the generator